Thanks for the interesting perspective, but I’m still not convinced that the Catholic interpretation is correct. First of all, the elders in the New Testament churches seem to have been selected from those who were already respected members of the congregation, not men sent from some central ecclesiastical authority as we see in the Catholic church. Furthermore, when I read I Timothy 3, which is probably the best description of the qualifications for holding offices in the Church, it clearly states that both the bishop and deacon should be men married to one wife, and it also talks about how they should keep their family affairs in order, even mentioning their children. To me, this rules out the possibility of a celibate priesthood that we see in the Catholic church.
Celibate priesthoods were typically a feature of pagan religions, while in the Old Testament, the Jewish custom was for priests and rabbis to be married men. This seems quite sensible to me, since what better way can one demonstrate aptitude to shepherd a large flock (the congregation) than by being a good shepherd to a small flock (your family) first?
I might also point out that the text you posted again claims that the power of forgiving sins was given by Jesus to the apostles, but the verse itself in John 20, says that the disciples were assembled when this commission was given, it does not say the apostles were the only ones present.
This is still true today. Rome does not send anyone; they simply affirm the individual chosen.
Furthermore, when I read I Timothy 3, which is probably the best description of the qualifications for holding offices in the Church, it clearly states that both the bishop and deacon should be men married to one wife, and it also talks about how they should keep their family affairs in order, even mentioning their children.
This verse refers to bishops that were widowers. Paul is instructing that these widowers could not remarry. The verse also refers to those bishops who were currently married. They also could not remarry (in the Catholic Church's Eastern rite, priests are allowed to marry; celibacy is only a disciplinary rule for the clergy of the Roman rite). Therefore, this text has nothing to do with imposing a marriage requirement on becoming a bishop.
Celibate priesthoods were typically a feature of pagan religions, while in the Old Testament, the Jewish custom was for priests and rabbis to be married men.
Jesus was a rabbi. He was not married. Latin Rite priests and many in the Eastern Catholic Churches, model their lives on Jesus. In 1 Cor. 7:27, Paul teaches men that they should not seek marriage. In Paul’s opinion, marriage introduces worldly temptations that can interfere with one’s relationship with God, specifically regarding those who will become full-time ministers in the Church. Agin in 1 Cor. 7:32-33, 38, Paul recommends celibacy for full-time ministers in the Church so that they are able to focus entirely upon God and building up His kingdom. He “who refrains from marriage will do better.”
I might also point out that the text you posted again claims that the power of forgiving sins was given by Jesus to the apostles, but the verse itself in John 20, says that the disciples were assembled when this commission was given, it does not say the apostles were the only ones present.
As soon as Jesus rose from the dead and earned salvation for us, he brought his apostles a new gift. After speaking peace to them, he said, "As the Father has sent me, even so I send you" (John 20:21). Just as Jesus was sent by the Father to reconcile the world to God, Jesus sent the apostles to continue his mission.
Jesus then breathed on the apostles. This is a verse that is often passed over, but it has extraordinary significance because it is only the second time in all of Scripture where God breathes on anyone. The other instance was at the moment of creation, when God breathed his own life into the nostrils of Adam. This should tell us that something of great importance is taking place. Upon doing this, Jesus said, "Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained" (John 20:22–23).
Notice that Jesus is not simply commissioning the apostles to preach about God’s forgiveness. He is not saying, "Go tell everyone that when God forgives men’s sins, they’re forgiven." In using the second person plural you, Jesus is telling his apostles that by the power of the Holy Spirit he has given them the power to forgive and retain the sins of men. Having the power to forgive and to retain sins implies that the apostle knows what a person’s sins are, which in turn implies oral confession. Otherwise, how is the apostle to know what to retain or forgive?