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How Strong Is the Arab Claim to Palestine?-Exactly who has the right to claim "I had it first?"
FrontpageMagazine ^ | 8-30-04 | Lawrence Auster

Posted on 08/30/2004 5:34:58 AM PDT by SJackson

There is a myth hanging over all discussion of the Palestinian problem: the myth that this land was "Arab" land taken from its native inhabitants by invading Jews. Whatever may be the correct solution to the problems of the Middle East, let's get a few things straight:

§ As a strictly legal matter, the Jews didn't take Palestine from the Arabs; they took it from the British, who exercised sovereign authority in Palestine under a League of Nations mandate for thirty years prior to Israel's declaration of independence in 1948. And the British don't want it back.

§ If you consider the British illegitimate usurpers, fine. In that case, this territory is not Arab land but Turkish land, a province of the Ottoman Empire for hundreds of years until the British wrested it from them during the Great War in 1917. And the Turks don't want it back.

§ If you look back earlier in history than the Ottoman Turks, who took over Palestine over in 1517, you find it under the sovereignty of the yet another empire not indigenous to Palestine: the Mamluks, who were Turkish and Circassian slave-soldiers headquartered in Egypt. And the Mamluks don't even exist any more, so they can't want it back.

So, going back 800 years, there's no particularly clear chain of title that makes Israel's title to the land inferior to that of any of the previous owners. Who were, continuing backward:

§ The Mamluks, already mentioned, who in 1250 took Palestine over from:

§ The Ayyubi dynasty, the descendants of Saladin, the Kurdish Muslim leader who in 1187 took Jerusalem and most of Palestine from:

§ The European Christian Crusaders, who in 1099 conquered Palestine from:

§ The Seljuk Turks, who ruled Palestine in the name of:

§ The Abbasid Caliphate of Baghdad, which in 750 took over the sovereignty of the entire Near East from:

§ The Umayyad Caliphate of Damascus, which in 661 inherited control of the Islamic lands from

§ The Arabs of Arabia, who in the first flush of Islamic expansion conquered Palestine in 638 from:

§ The Byzantines, who (nice people—perhaps it should go to them?) didn't conquer the Levant, but, upon the division of the Roman Empire in 395, inherited Palestine from:

§ The Romans, who in 63 B.C. took it over from:

§ The last Jewish kingdom, which during the Maccabean rebellion from 168 to 140 B.C. won control of the land from:

§ The Hellenistic Greeks, who under Alexander the Great in 333 B.C. conquered the Near East from:

§ The Persian empire, which under Cyrus the Great in 639 B.C. freed Jerusalem and Judah from:

§ The Babylonian empire, which under Nebuchadnezzar in 586 B.C. took Jerusalem and Judah from:

§ The Jews, meaning the people of the Kingdom of Judah, who, in their earlier incarnation as the Israelites, seized the land in the 12th and 13th centuries B.C. from:

§ The Canaanites, who had inhabited the land for thousands of years before they were dispossessed by the Israelites.

As the foregoing suggests, any Arab claim to sovereignty based on inherited historical control will not stand up. Arabs are not native to Palestine, but are native to Arabia, which is called Arab-ia for the breathtakingly simple reason that it is the historic home of the Arabs. The terroritories comprising all other "Arab" states outside the Arabian peninsula—including Iraq, Syria, Jordan, Lebanon, Egypt, Tunisia, and Algeria, as well as the entity now formally under the Palestinian Authority—were originally non-Arab nations that were conquered by the Muslim Arabs when they spread out from the Arabian peninsula in the first great wave of jihad in the 7th century, defeating, mass-murdering, enslaving, dispossessing, converting, or reducing to the lowly status of dhimmitude millions of Christians and Jews and destroying their ancient and flourishing civilizations. Prior to being Christian, of course, these lands had even more ancient histories. Pharaonic Egypt, for example, was not an Arab country through its 3,000 year history.

The recent assertion by the Palestinian Arabs that they are descended from the ancient Canaanites whom the ancient Hebrews displaced is absurd in light of the archeological evidence. There is no record of the Canaanites surviving their destruction in ancient times. History records literally hundreds of ancient peoples that no longer exist. The Arab claim to be descended from Canaanites is an invention that came after the 1964 founding of the Palestine Liberation Organization, the same crew who today deny that there was ever a Jewish temple in Jerusalem. Prior to 1964 there was no "Palestinian" people and no "Palestinian" claim to Palestine; the Arab nations who sought to overrun and destroy Israel in 1948 planned to divide up the territory amongst themselves. Let us also remember that prior to the founding of the state of Israel in 1948, the name "Palestinian" referred to the Jews of Palestine.

In any case, today's "Palestine," meaning the West Bank and Gaza, is, like most of the world, inhabited by people who are not descendants of the first human society to inhabit that territory. This is true not only of recently settled countries like the United States and Argentina, where European settlers took the land from the indigenous inhabitants several hundred years ago, but also of ancient nations like Japan, whose current Mongoloid inhabitants displaced a primitive people, the Ainu, aeons ago. Major "native" tribes of South Africa, like the Zulu, are actually invaders from the north who arrived in the 17th century. India's caste system reflects waves of fair-skinned Aryan invaders who arrived in that country in the second millennium B.C. One could go on and on.

The only nations that have perfect continuity between their earliest known human inhabitants and their populations of the present day are Iceland, parts of China, and a few Pacific islands. The Chinese case is complicated by the fact that the great antiquity of Chinese civilization has largely erased the traces of whatever societies preceded it, making it difficult to reconstruct to what extent the expanding proto-Chinese displaced (or absorbed) the prehistoric peoples of that region. History is very sketchy in regard to the genealogies of ancient peoples. The upshot is that "aboriginalism"—the proposition that the closest descendants of the original inhabitants of a territory are the rightful owners—is not tenable in the real world. It is not clear that it would be a desirable idea even if it were tenable. Would human civilization really be better off if there had been no China, no Japan, no Greece, no Rome, no France, no England, no Ireland, no United States?

Back to the Arabs

I have no problem recognizing the legitimacy of the Arabs' tenure in Palestine when they had it, from 638 to 1099, a period of 461 years out of a history lasting 5,000 years. They took Palestine by military conquest, and they lost it by conquest, to the Christian Crusaders in 1099. Of course, military occupation by itself does not determine which party rightly has sovereignty in a given territory. Can it not be said that the Arabs have sovereign rights, if not to all of Israel, then at least to the West Bank, by virtue of their majority residency in that region from the early Middle Ages to the present?

To answer that question, let's look again at the historical record. Prior to 1947, as we've discussed, Palestine was administered by the British under the Palestine Mandate, the ultimate purpose of which, according to the Balfour Declaration, was the establishment of a Jewish national home in Palestine. In 1924 the British divided the Palestine Mandate into an Arabs-only territory east of the Jordan, which became the Kingdom of Trans-Jordan, and a greatly reduced Palestine Mandate territory west of the Jordan, which was inhabited by both Arabs and Jews.

Given the fact that the Jews and Arabs were unable to coexist in one state, there had to be two states. At the same time, there were no natural borders separating the two peoples, in the way that, for example, the Brenner Pass has historically marked the division between Latin and Germanic Europe. Since the Jewish population was concentrated near the coast, the Jewish state had to start at the coast and go some distance inland. Exactly where it should have stopped, and where the Arab state should have begun, was a practical question that could have been settled in any number of peaceful ways, almost all of which the Jews would have accepted. The Jews' willingness to compromise on territory was demonstrated not only by their acquiescence in the UN's 1947 partition plan, which gave them a state with squiggly, indefensible borders, but even by their earlier acceptance of the 1937 Peel Commission partition plan, which gave them nothing more than a part of the Galilee and a tiny strip along the coast. Yet the Arab nations, refusing to accept any Jewish sovereignty in Palestine even if it was the size of a postage stamp, unanimously rejected the 1937 Peel plan, and nine years later they violently rejected the UN's partition plan as well. When the Arabs resorted to arms in order to wipe out the Jews and destroy the Jewish state, they accepted the verdict of arms. They lost that verdict in 1948, and they lost it again in 1967, when Jordan, which had annexed the West Bank in 1948 (without any objections from Palestinian Arabs that their sovereign nationhood was being violated), attacked Israel from the West Bank during the Six Day War despite Israel's urgent pleas that it stay out of the conflict. Israel in self-defense then captured the West Bank. The Arabs thus have no grounds to complain either about Israel's existence (achieved in '48) or about its expanded sovereignty from the river to the sea (achieved in '67).

The Arabs have roiled the world for decades with their furious protest that their land has been "stolen" from them. One might take seriously such a statement if it came from a pacifist people such as the Tibetans, who had quietly inhabited their land for ages before it was seized by the Communist Chinese in 1950. The claim is laughable coming from the Arabs, who in the early Middle Ages conquered and reduced to slavery and penury ancient peoples and civilizations stretching from the borders of Persia to the Atlantic; who in 1947 rejected an Arab state in Palestine alongside a Jewish state and sought to obliterate the nascent Jewish state; who never called for a distinct Palestinian Arab state until the creation of the terrorist PLO in 1964—sixteen years after the founding of the state of Israel; and who to this moment continue to seek Israel's destruction, an object that would be enormously advanced by the creation of the Arab state they demand. The Arab claim to sovereign rights west of the Jordan is only humored today because of a fatal combination of world need for Arab oil, leftist Political Correctness that has cast the Israelis as "oppressors," and, of course, good old Jew-hatred.

Lawrence Auster


TOPICS: Editorial; Foreign Affairs; Israel
KEYWORDS: cuneiform; exodus; godgavethislandtome; thisismyland
Navigation: use the links below to view more comments.
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1 posted on 08/30/2004 5:34:59 AM PDT by SJackson
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To: dennisw; Cachelot; Yehuda; Nix 2; veronica; Catspaw; knighthawk; Alouette; Optimist; weikel; ...
If you'd like to be on this middle east/political ping list, please FR mail me.
2 posted on 08/30/2004 5:36:01 AM PDT by SJackson (You'd be amazed the number of people who wanna introduce themselves to you in the men's room J.Kerry)
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To: SJackson

Last sentence summed it all up pretty well for me. But then again I'm a gentile neocon, so go figure.


3 posted on 08/30/2004 5:37:33 AM PDT by SirLurkedalot (God bless our Veterans!!! And God bless America!!! Molon Labe.)
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To: SJackson

ill have to read this later


4 posted on 08/30/2004 5:37:52 AM PDT by escapefromboston (the real Green Lantern Returns!)
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To: SJackson
The above matters not. The Palestinian murderers gave $$$$ to the DNC.


5 posted on 08/30/2004 5:38:49 AM PDT by Diogenesis (Re: Protection from up on high, Keyser Sose has nothing on Sandy Berger, the DNC Burglar)
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To: SJackson

Already here but thanks for the ping regardless.


6 posted on 08/30/2004 5:39:28 AM PDT by SirLurkedalot (God bless our Veterans!!! And God bless America!!! Molon Labe.)
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To: SJackson

Excellent find! Thanks, S!


7 posted on 08/30/2004 5:45:17 AM PDT by NYC GOP Chick (Kerry is a Sitzpinkler!)
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To: SJackson

Add to all this that much of the 'Palestinian' lands were acquired by a rather conventional means. The Jews bought it. And they bought it often from absentee-landlords who were, mostly, Arabs. Then when the 'Palestinians' were displaced they tride to move to the nations of their 'brother' Arabs. Innstead of being welcomed as part of the family, they were treated as second class citizens, or worse--they were often not allowed to work, not allowed to own property and often, not allowed to stay. So they migrated back to Palestine. The Arab world doesn't give a damn about the Palestinian's real plight. They just want Israel to disappear.


8 posted on 08/30/2004 5:55:58 AM PDT by newheart (The Truth? You can't handle the Truth. But He can handle you.)
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To: SJackson

Bookmarked - thanks!


9 posted on 08/30/2004 6:07:27 AM PDT by Slings and Arrows (Bush took less time to find Saddam that Hillary did to find the Rose Law Firm billing records!)
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To: SJackson

Excellent review and analysis.


10 posted on 08/30/2004 6:08:32 AM PDT by Paul_B
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To: SJackson
The article does not go into the origins of Palestinians. Aren't they the descendants of the Philistines, the seafaring warring people who helped destroy the Egyptian empire (I forget if it was the middle kingdom or not).

The article does raise a very important issue. At what point of history do we go to to assert "squatter" rights? Specially since we really don't know how human migration took place over the centuries. If evolution is true, then we all should move to Africa. And if the Bible is true, then we all should move to Iraq.

Impractical, and therefore we have to deal with reality as of today.
11 posted on 08/30/2004 6:11:15 AM PDT by razoroccam (Then in the name of Allah, they will let loose the germs of war (http://www.booksurge.com))
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To: SJackson
A few indisputable facts:
1)During World War I the British were at war with the Ottoman Empire.
Palestine was a part of the Ottoman Empire.
2)When Britain defeated the Ottoman Empire, the British had the legal and historic right to carve up the Empire in any manner they pleased.
Such is and always has been the right of the conqueror.
3)The British, rightly or wrongly, promised the Jews a home in Palestine; this promise was embodied in the Balfour Declaration. This was a promise they had a right to fulfill after they took control of Palestine. 4)The British promised Emir of Mecca that he would receive Aleppo, Homs, Homa, and Damascus if he assisted the British with the war against the Ottoman Empire.
As anyone knows who looks at a map, these are four cities in Syria.
The British were deliberately vague as to whether the promise entailed control of the cities alone, the cities and their environs, or the provinces of which the cities were the capitals.
The implication the Arabs chose to make of this pledge is meaningless, since they were not the "promising" party, nor did they have the power to compel the British to interpret the promise in a manner favorable to Arab desires.
In any event, this was a personal promise made to the Emir and not to the "Arabs," who did not exist as any sort of clearly defined ethnic group since society in the Middle East was tribal and not national.
5) It is true that Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points speaks of the "self-determination" of peoples, but this document did not bind the British,nor did they recognize it.
In any event the United States was never at war with the Ottoman Empire, so any pronouncement made by Wilson bound the United States and not those countries at war with the Ottoman Empire.

The Arabs feel they have a right to "Palestine",but this right rests on nothing more than the Arab conquest of the area from the Byzantine Empire.
As is known by any student of history, a territory that you conquer is yours as long as you have the force to keep others out.
12 posted on 08/30/2004 6:17:55 AM PDT by quadrant
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To: quadrant

History is what it is.

The history of those who over the past centuries who sought to take the claim of that piece of real estate is never ending.

There is always differing arguments as to who "legally" holds the claim, yet few actually have taken the time to lay out what was written would be. Some use the "Bible" to stake a claim, others uses their own "good" books. Interesting little thing about all these happenings, they have happened just the way it was written all those centuries ago.

Some might have the burning desire to find out "WHAT" is next!


13 posted on 08/30/2004 6:26:54 AM PDT by Just mythoughts
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To: SJackson

anyone have that map of Israel in the Arab world? always very instructive when discussing how Jews are "occupying" Arab land.


14 posted on 08/30/2004 6:32:23 AM PDT by montag813
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To: SJackson

Bump for later.


15 posted on 08/30/2004 6:34:28 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: quadrant
As is known by any student of history, a territory that you conquer is yours as long as you have the force to keep others out.

So you don't believe in property rights? Why are you on FreeRepublic?

Either the pre 1948 inhabitants of Palestine had property rights to the land they inhabited regardless of the outcome of any war (you are familiar with the Geneva Convetion, aren't you?), or no one has such rights, and the right to property exists only at the sufference of the State (sounds pretty communistic to me, but then we are discussing the defense of an obviously communistic state in Israel, where the government "owns" 95%+ of the land).

This is fundementally what the argument is about, even more than over sovereignty - the dispossesion by force of hundreds of thousands of Arabs from their houses and land in 1948 and since 1967, and their reoccupation by Israelis under the color of law.

If you don't believe me, ask any Palestinian whose family lost their property whether or not they would like it back, or have preferred to have kept it, and whether that is their primary beef. It would be mine too if someone stole my home, and all I was left with was the clothes on my back.

16 posted on 08/30/2004 6:42:11 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: SJackson
This is kind of long...but I guess I've been saving it for something like your question.

THE MOSLEM CLAIM TO JERUSALEM IS FALSE
by Dr. Manfred R. Lehmann
The Moslem "claim" to Jerusalem is based on what is written in the Koran, which although Jerusalem is not mentioned even once, nevertheless talks (in Sura 17:1) of the "Furthest Mosque": "Glory be unto Allah who did take his servant for a journey at night from the Sacred Mosque to the Furthest Mosque."
But is there any foundation to the Moslem argument that this "Furthest Mosque" (Al-Masujidi al-Aqtza) refers to what is today called the Aksa Mosque in Jerusalem? The answer is, none whatsoever.
In the days of Mohammed, who died in 632 of the Common Era, Jerusalem was a Christian city within the Byzantine Empire. Jerusalem was captured by Khalif Omar only in 638, six years after Mohammed's death.
Throughout all this time there were only churches in Jerusalem, and a church stood on the Temple Mount, called the Church of Saint Mary of Justinian, built in the Byzantine architectural style. The Aksa Mosque was built 20 years after the Dome of the Rock, which was built in 691-692 by Khalif Abd El Malik. The name "Omar Mosque" is therefore false.
In or around 711, or about 80 years after Mohammed died, Malik's son, Abd El-Wahd - who ruled from 705-715 - reconstructed the Christian- Byzantine Church of St. Mary and converted it into a mosque. He left the structure as it was, a typical Byzantine "basilica" structure with a row of pillars on either side of the rectangular "ship" in the center. All he added was an onion-like dome on top of the building to make it look like a mosque. He then named it El-Aksa, so it would sound like the one mentioned in the Koran.
Therefore it is crystal clear that Mohammed could never have had this mosque in mind when he compiled the Koran, since it did not exist for another three generations after his death. Rather, as many scholars long ago established, it is logical that Mohammed intended the mosque in Mecca as the "Sacred Mosque," and the mosque in Medina as the "Furthest Mosque." So much for the Moslem claim based on the Aksa Mosque.
With this understood, it is no wonder that Mohammed issued a strict prohibition against facing Jerusalem in prayer, a practice that had been tolerated only for some months in order to lure Jews to convert to Islam. When that effort failed, Mohammed put an abrupt stop to it on February 12, 624. Jerusalem simply never held any sanctity for the Moslems themselves, but only for the Jews in their domain. [DR. MANFRED R. LEHMANN is a writer for the Algemeiner Journal. Originally published in the Algemeiner Journal, August 19, 1994.]

17 posted on 08/30/2004 6:59:35 AM PDT by Khurkris (Proud Scottish/HillBilly - We perfected "The Art of the Grudge")
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To: montag813

18 posted on 08/30/2004 7:01:18 AM PDT by Alouette (My son, the Learned Youngster of Zion)
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To: SJackson

God gave this land to his chosen people.

It doesn't matter who "was there first".


19 posted on 08/30/2004 7:14:41 AM PDT by BenLurkin (Who was Madame Binh's messenger boy?)
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To: Hermann the Cherusker
Of course, I believe in property rights, but the Arabs were enemy combatants; that is, thousands served in the Ottoman armies. Thus, the British were free to dispose of Arab properly in any manner they pleased.
Just as Southerners discovered after the Civil War, the victorious power has the right to dispose of your property in any way he deems fit.
France discovered learned this after the Franco-Prussian War when Germany annexed Alsace-Lorraine.
Germany learned the same lesson after WWII, when it was forced to cede East Prussia to Poland.
In any event, the Arabs living on the land were for most part tenant farmers without any ownership rights.
Almost of the land in "Palestine" was owned by absentee landlords who lived in Damascus, who were only too willing to sell the land to the Jews. In fact, so willing were these landlords to sell, that the Zionist organizations lacked the funds to purchase all that came on the market.

The state must guarantee property rights, but for rights to have meaning there must be a guarantor. As the world exists now, the guarantor is the state. If the state no longer exists nor has no power to protect its citizens, then rights become a tenuous matter.
If you doubt this, visit Aztlan.net. You'll see maps depicting how the Western part of the United States is to be carved up into a new state called Aztlan.
Believe me, should the United States lose a major war and be occupied by a hostile power, the demands to create this new state will be made and made vociferously.
If Aztlan is ever created, you can be certain its rulers will not look kindly on the property rights of non-Hispanics.

The Geneva Convention is just that, a convention among states. There was (and is) no state called Arabia. As I said, the British promise was given to the Emir of Mecca alone and not to the Arabs.

I agree that the dispossession of Arab property by the Israelis is regrettable, but this unfortunate situation could have been avoided, if the Arabs had been willing to allow the Jews to settle in Palestine.
In fact, Arab hostility to Jewish settlement is the one constant fact in the history of the area.
Of course, Arabs want their property back, but they abandoned it in the first place or they sided with the invading Arab armies.
Might does not make right, but it makes fact. Facts may be unfortunate, but they are real.
20 posted on 08/30/2004 7:30:51 AM PDT by quadrant
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To: quadrant
Not to mention that Israel owns most of the land (around 70% I believe, not 95%) because the Brits owned it and gave it to Israel.

The Brits owned it because the Turks owned it, it wasn't private property. Arabs who stayed still own their property, Arabs who fled and didn't file claims by 1954, and few did, still anticipating an Arab victory, were out of luck. Israel's position is that they'd be glad to negotiate compensation, though only in conjunction with compensation to Jews expelled from Arab lands. Needless to say, that's a non starter.

21 posted on 08/30/2004 7:38:22 AM PDT by SJackson (You'd be amazed the number of people who wanna introduce themselves to you in the men's room J.Kerry)
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To: Hermann the Cherusker
Are you aware that those who lost property did so as a result of siding with nations at war with Israel?

The "refugees" were promised that, if they left Israel, abandoning their property, and sided with the aggressors, they would be rewarded with property seized from the Jews in the region.

It is not about property rights because they voluntarily abandoned their property and aided the enemies of the legitimate government of Israel.

Many Arabs, and "Palestinians" own property in Israel. Many Arabs serve in the Israeli army. In fact, a large number of the career soldiers are Bedouin.
22 posted on 08/30/2004 9:14:12 AM PDT by sharktrager (The road to hell is paved with good intentions. And the paving contractor lives in Chappaqua.)
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To: SJackson

Deuteronomy 1:8 is the official deed to the land.


23 posted on 08/30/2004 9:33:42 AM PDT by sheik yerbouty
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To: SJackson

As I said, Britain was at war with the Ottoman Empire and as
the victor Britain had the right to carve up the territory any way they pleased.
And please note that the Arabs followed the same policy, when they conquered the land from the Byzantines.


24 posted on 08/30/2004 9:43:19 AM PDT by quadrant
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To: quadrant

There is already a Palestinian homeland, it's called Jordan.


25 posted on 08/30/2004 9:45:04 AM PDT by dfwgator (It's sad that the news media treats Michael Jackson better than our military.)
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To: razoroccam

You are referring to the Phoenicians. I don't believe they are predecessorsof the "palestinians'. ButI could be wrong.


26 posted on 08/30/2004 9:55:01 AM PDT by newheart (The Truth? You can't handle the Truth. But He can handle you.)
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To: dfwgator
Agreed.
In fact, the original Balfour Declaration covered all of Palestine, which was then Israel, Judea, Samaria, and what is now Jordan.
However, Winston Churchill decided to prohibit Jews from settling east of the Jordan River.
His decision was resented bitterly by elements within the Zionist leadership but was accepted reluctantly by David Ben-Gurion and others. In retrospect, the decision to accept Churchill's decision was a wise one, given the historical consequences that concentrating Jewish settlement in what is now Israel (and especially Galilee) made the establishment of a Jewish state possible.
27 posted on 08/30/2004 10:26:57 AM PDT by quadrant
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To: SJackson
Once again:

The Jews of Israel have the same right to the land that America has to Nebraska.

They conquered it, they moved out or suppressed the indigenous barbarians, and they are productively using the land in furtherance of civilization.

The Israeli fixation on "legitimacy", as something that can or should be given by a fictitious international "community" is likely to destroy them in the long run, because any non-Jewish supranational organization powerful enough to bestow "legitimacy" or a "right to exist" is also powerful enough to take it away.

Israel's (and America's) right to the land it now occupies grows out of the barrel of a gun.

Never forget.

28 posted on 08/30/2004 10:29:07 AM PDT by Jim Noble (Hillary becomes the RAT candidate on October 9. You saw it here first.)
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To: dfwgator; quadrant
The Phillistine - Palestine connection..
This is from memory, no "source"...

As I recall from my readings, it was the Romans that called the region "Palestine"...
Myth or fact, the tradition is, upon conquering the Jews after their rebellions, ( about the time of Christ's execution ) the Romans named the area Palestine..
It was a reference to the Phillistines, an ancient enemy of the Jews.. and intended as an insult to the defeated jewish people..
They would henceforth live in a land named for their enemies..

I don't know how much truth there is to the story, but it sure sounds like the romans..

29 posted on 08/30/2004 1:48:19 PM PDT by Drammach (Freedom; not just a job, it's an adventure..)
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To: SJackson
How Strong Is the Arab Claim to Palestine?-Exactly who has the right to claim "I had it first?"

Read From Time Immemorial by Joan Peters for a very good overview of the situation. Especially interesting was the massive Arab immigration into the areas surrounding Jewish settlements to take advantage of the stability and employment. They moved into that small area of Western Palestine in numbers over a short period of time that far exceeded anything that could be accounted for by simple reproductive population growth of settled, non-transient populations. What is more, they came from virtually every country of the Middle East as well as Arab Africa and even Europe.
30 posted on 08/30/2004 1:53:49 PM PDT by aruanan
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To: Drammach
I don't claim to be a historian, but as I understand it the area was not designated Palestine until the second century A.D. In approximately 135 AD the Jews revolted. The Romans, tired of suppressing insurrections in Judea, deported all (or almost all) the Jews.
And as a mark of dishonor on the Jews, the Romans changed the name from Judea to Palestine, which was supposed to reflect the name of the most powerful of the inhabitants (the Philistines) who lived in Canaan before the Hebrews moved in after the Exodus. If this is true, then this area was considered during antiquity to be the home of the Jewish people. If my facts are faulty, I'm ready to be corrected.
31 posted on 08/30/2004 3:22:30 PM PDT by quadrant
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To: 1bigdictator; 1st-P-In-The-Pod; 2sheep; 7.62 x 51mm; A Jovial Cad; a_witness; adam_az; af_vet_rr; ..
Timeline of Palestinian History, from Biblical to 1850

FRmail me to be added or removed from this Judaic/pro-Israel ping list.

WARNING: This is a high volume ping list

32 posted on 08/30/2004 3:29:03 PM PDT by Alouette (My son, the Learned Youngster of Zion)
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To: newheart

>>>. So they migrated back to Palestine.

Migrated back to Palestine? Or SENT back to 'Palestine' to displace Israel?

Let's not forget that the six day war started after Lewis Weeks filed his report that Israel has an estimated 500 million to 2 billion barrels of oil to be recovered.

Do you think the Mid East REALLY wants a 'Palestine'? Or does the Mid East want control of the oil?


33 posted on 08/30/2004 3:52:11 PM PDT by Calpernia ("People never like what they don't understand")
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To: quadrant
Philistines actually arrived in the Land of Israel shortly AFTER Hebrews. They were seafaring people of Greek origin. They were more technologically advanced than Hebrews - they used iron. Philistines lived in Gaza area and never advanced deep into the country.

During anti-Roman revolts the country was emptied of all inhabitants - after all they had almost 200 years of war.

The term "Palestine" should not used for any events prior to 135 CE.

Jews did not take the entire Palestine from British. Mandate Palestine also included territory used for Trans-Jordan.

One should also note that the term "West Bank" is very new. Trans-Jordan renamed Judea and Samaria in 1950 in order to annex it.
34 posted on 08/30/2004 5:43:00 PM PDT by chukcha
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To: chukcha
Agreed. The Philistines were of Greek origin and their
settlements were confined to the Gaza area and not the whole of Canaan. Still, the Romans decided for whatever reason to rename the country Palestine.

Winston Churchill, as Colonial Secretary, decided to pro-
hibit Jewish settlement east of the Jordan River. This decision was resented bitterly by some within the Zionist movement but was accepted by David Ben Gurion.

Agreed. "West Bank" is a term of very recent lineage and like Palestine is a concocted one.
35 posted on 08/30/2004 6:49:20 PM PDT by quadrant
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To: razoroccam; newheart
The article does not go into the origins of Palestinians. Aren't they the descendants of the Philistines, the seafaring warring people who helped destroy the Egyptian empire (I forget if it was the middle kingdom or not).
No. The Pilishtim and other sea people, destroyed the Hittites and, more importantly for Canaan, the Ugaritic tribes. The Philistines existed from about 1100 to 800 BCE. By the end of this time they were a conquered people, whose cities were destroyed and population decimated. They disappear from the historical and archeological record. In other words, they ceased to exist as a nation or people.
The "Palestinians" are Arabized Christian and Muslim-converts and Muslim-Arabs. The Arabs invaded Byzanitine Palestine (the name was imposed by the Muslims in 135CE in a spiteful attempt to deJudaize Israel) in the 630's after the battle of the Yarmuk. The area, already in ruin after a Jewish and Samaritan revolt during the last Byzanite war on the Sassanid Persians, was easy to conquer. The land was Arabized through conquest, rape and enslavement, migrations, and dhimmitude.
The "Palestinians" are an artificial people, indistinguishable from their former compatriots, the Jordanians.

The article does raise a very important issue. At what point of history do we go to to assert "squatter" rights? Specially since we really don't know how human migration took place over the centuries. If evolution is true, then we all should move to Africa. And if the Bible is true, then we all should move to Iraq
Huh?
Why would we move to Ur of the Chaldees?

36 posted on 08/30/2004 11:36:11 PM PDT by rmlew (Peaceniks and isolationists are objectively pro-Terrorist)
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To: Hermann the Cherusker
Arabs rarely owned land. Over 80% of 1947 "Palestine" was "owned" by the British as the land had been public under the Ottomans.
Renters have no real long-term property rights.
37 posted on 08/30/2004 11:38:40 PM PDT by rmlew (Peaceniks and isolationists are objectively pro-Terrorist)
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To: rmlew

Thanks for the history.

'Dhimmitude'?


38 posted on 08/31/2004 5:10:56 AM PDT by newheart (The Truth? You can't handle the Truth. But He can handle you.)
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To: rmlew

That seems like a disingenuous claim. Of course nobody attempted to "own" the Negev or the wastes SW of Jerusalem. The land was also more lightly settled then, so large areas probably lay fallow as grazing commons.


39 posted on 08/31/2004 5:46:41 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: rmlew
Arabs rarely owned land. Over 80% of 1947 "Palestine" was "owned" by the British as the land had been public under the Ottomans.

Renters have no real long-term property rights.

Do you fellows ever obey the dictates of your own religious scholars, or only when it is convenient to you?

"When a man hires a workman to labor in his field ... the workman is considered as the owner of the field ..." (Babylonian Talmud, Tractate Baba Metzia, pp-23-24)
- http://www.sacred-texts.com/jud/t06/me102.htm

40 posted on 08/31/2004 6:25:25 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: SJackson

Very interesting read.


41 posted on 08/31/2004 6:30:38 AM PDT by Ima Lurker
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To: sharktrager
It is not about property rights because they voluntarily abandoned their property and aided the enemies of the legitimate government of Israel.

Fleeing a war zone to avoid being killed is not "voluntarily abandoning ... property". But then, I know how some have twisted the divine Commandment, "Thou shalt not steal" to "allow" precisely what you describe.

Unfortunately for you, the civilized world, through the Geneva Convention, does not subscribe to this barbarism.

42 posted on 08/31/2004 6:32:18 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: quadrant
Just as Southerners discovered after the Civil War, the victorious power has the right to dispose of your property in any way he deems fit.

France discovered learned this after the Franco-Prussian War when Germany annexed Alsace-Lorraine.

Germany learned the same lesson after WWII, when it was forced to cede East Prussia to Poland.

You are confusing "rights" with "power". There is certainly nothing in the rules of conduct of the civilzed nations of the world which allows for mass dispossesion and expulsions. And only in the last case, East Prussia, was their a wholesale disposession and expulsion of the native inhabitants by the conquerors.

Either we believe in property rights, or we believe in the rule of the strongest with the most guns.

43 posted on 08/31/2004 6:35:09 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: Jim Noble
The Jews of Israel have the same right to the land that America has to Nebraska.

They conquered it, they moved out or suppressed the indigenous barbarians, and they are productively using the land in furtherance of civilization.

I can't speak for Nebraska, but out in my part of the country (Pennsylvania), the land was legitimately bought from the Indians for a fair price in a settlement made without war. My right to my property in this state is based upon real title, not force. The force enforces my title. It does not create it.

44 posted on 08/31/2004 6:36:53 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: Hermann the Cherusker
You do know most of them left before it was a war zone...

guess not.

Also, fleeing a war zone to go to the nation of the invader is not the same as simply fleeing the war zone. It is collaberating with the enemy.

I suppose you think the plantations of the south should be returned to the slaveholders?
45 posted on 08/31/2004 6:45:27 AM PDT by sharktrager (The road to hell is paved with good intentions. And the paving contractor lives in Chappaqua.)
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To: rmlew

"If evolution is true, then we all should move to Africa. And if the Bible is true, then we all should move to Iraq. Huh? Why would we move to Ur of the Chaldees?"

That was sarcasm, my dear fellow, sarcasm. I don't put alerts such as barf, sarcasm, etc - I assume that for most part, the intent of such statements are obvious. For example, the idiocy of billions of humans living in Mesopotamia or Kenya/Tanzania is (or should be) self-evident.


46 posted on 08/31/2004 6:51:12 AM PDT by razoroccam (Then in the name of Allah, they will let loose the Germs of War (http://www.booksurge.com))
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To: Alouette

Interesting that your map shows a Palestine state.


47 posted on 08/31/2004 6:53:46 AM PDT by Non-Sequitur (Jefferson Davis - the first 'selected, not elected' president.)
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To: SJackson; rmlew
Some falsehoods in the article:

As a strictly legal matter, the Jews didn't take Palestine from the Arabs; they took it from the British, who exercised sovereign authority in Palestine under a League of Nations mandate for thirty years prior to Israel's declaration of independence in 1948.

This assumes that the illegitimate League of Nations that was never recognized by the US (so why are purported US citizens using this to justify Israeli actions?) had some sort of power to give away willy-nilly the land inhabitated by other people to various occupying powers. Americans rejected that concept in 1920, when we refused to ratify the League of Nations treaty.

In that case, this territory is not Arab land but Turkish land, a province of the Ottoman Empire for hundreds of years until the British wrested it from them during the Great War in 1917.

Well, strictly speaking, the British wrested it from the Turks by using a mainly Arab force from free Arabia to take the land from occupying the Turkish Army.

The Byzantines, who (nice people—perhaps it should go to them?) didn't conquer the Levant, but, upon the division of the Roman Empire in 395, inherited Palestine from: The Romans, who in 63 B.C. took it over from:

This just goes to show you what a biased twit the writer is. "Byzantines" were and are Romans. The Arabs and Turks still correctly call both the Greeks and the Arabized Christians of the Middle East "Romans".

As the foregoing suggests, any Arab claim to sovereignty based on inherited historical control will not stand up.

The claim is not so much to sovereignty as to the write to live in the land of your birth secure in your property. This is an obfuscation and smoke screen.

terroritories comprising all other "Arab" states outside the Arabian peninsula—including Iraq, Syria, Jordan, Lebanon, Egypt, Tunisia, and Algeria, as well as the entity now formally under the Palestinian Authority—were originally non-Arab nations that were conquered by the Muslim Arabs when they spread out from the Arabian peninsula in the first great wave of jihad in the 7th century

Not true as far as Jordan, Syria, and western Iraq go. These areas were the Roman province of "Arbaia Felix" and were of course inhabitated by Arabs. The Punic inhabitants of Tunisia and Algeria and Lybia and Morrocco were Carthaginian Phoenicians, Phoenicians being the direct continuation of the Canaanites. The Arab conquest of these areas from the Romans caused most Romans to flee to the East Roman Empire or Italy or Spain, while the Punics and Berbers became integrated with the Arabs.

The recent assertion by the Palestinian Arabs that they are descended from the ancient Canaanites whom the ancient Hebrews displaced is absurd in light of the archeological evidence. There is no record of the Canaanites surviving their destruction in ancient times.

The Phoenecians were the direct continuation of the Canaanites (who were clearly not displaced by the Hebrews as openly admitted by the Bible - "So the children of Israel dwelt in the midst of the Chanaanite, and the Hethite, and the Amorrhite, and the Pherezite, and the Hevite, and the Jebusite: And they took their daughters to wives, and they gave their own daughters to their sons, and they served their gods." - Judges 3.5-6).

See: http://www.geocities.com/SoHo/Lofts/2938/histcult.html

And also:

"In the Tell-el-Amarna tablets Canaan is found under the forms of Kinakhna and Kinakhkhi. Under the name of Kanana the Canaanites appear on Egyptian monuments, wearing a coat of mail and helmet, and distinguished by the use of spear and javelin and the battle-axe. They were called Phoenicians by the Greeks and Poeni by the Romans."

http://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary/canaanites.html

So obviously, the native inhabitants of Palestine at 1917, and those who moved to the land from Syria and Lebanon were undoubtedly Canaanite/Phoenician in origin. This especially applies to the Palestinian Christian population, which has no Arab admixture. And also, as noted above, the native population of North Africa outside Egypt.

"In the days when the trading Phoenicians held a prominent place, especially among the Canaanites, this word (Kena'ani), and even Canaan (e.g. Is., xxiii, 8), got the signification of "merchant, trader." As the name of the country it occurs under the forms Kinahhi, Kinahni, and Kinahna, as early as two centuries before Moses in the cuneiform letters of Syrian and Palestinian princes to Egyptian Pharaos, found at Tell el-Amarna; and earlier still in Egyptian inscriptions, in the form Ka-n-'-na. The Phoenician town of Laodicea calls itself on coins from the second century B.C. "a mother in Kena'an". In Grecian literature too, evidence remains that the Phoenicians called one of their ancestors, as well as their country, Chna, and even at the time of St. Augustine the Punic country people near Hippo called themselves Chanani, i.e. Canaanites." - Catholic Encyclopedia, Cana, Canaanites

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03569b.htm

In any case, today's "Palestine," meaning the West Bank and Gaza, is, like most of the world, inhabited by people who are not descendants of the first human society to inhabit that territory.

As far as any normal history shows, the Canaanites were the first known civilized inhabitants of the land, and the Palestinian Arabs are partially descended from the Canaanites. See above.

The only nations that have perfect continuity between their earliest known human inhabitants and their populations of the present day are Iceland, parts of China, and a few Pacific islands.

There are many more than this. We could start with the Armenians, Kurds, Georgians and other Caucassians, Basques, Picts, Dravidians, Australian Aboriginies, Ukranians, the Queycha Indians of Bolivia and Peru, etc., etc. This is totlally disingenuous lies.

Given the fact that the Jews and Arabs were unable to coexist in one state, there had to be two states.

This isn't a "fact". It is a situation created by colonial aspirations of Britain and the European Jewish population. many Jews had lived relatively peacefully among the Arabs for centuries until the poison of Zionism was thrown into the mix.

At the same time, there were no natural borders separating the two peoples, in the way that, for example, the Brenner Pass has historically marked the division between Latin and Germanic Europe.

Brenner Pass has never and still does not mark the division of Latin and Germanic Europe. The south slope of the Alps is inhabitated by Germas in an autonomous Italian province seized by Italy from Austria called South Tirol. More proof that this fellow simply has no idea what he is talking about.

The Arabs thus have no grounds to complain either about Israel's existence (achieved in '48) or about its expanded sovereignty from the river to the sea (achieved in '67).

As far as the undemocratic Arab governments, they have nothing to complain about, and are fortunate they have not been wiped out. As far as the Arab inhabitants who had nothign to do with the fighting, they have every right to complain about dispossesion.

48 posted on 08/31/2004 7:10:22 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: Non-Sequitur
Interesting that your map shows a Palestine state.

My map shows TWO Palestinian states. It also shows how "expansionist" those naughty Zionists are.

49 posted on 08/31/2004 7:11:41 AM PDT by Alouette (My son, the IDF soldier, on guard for Israel)
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To: sharktrager
You do know most of them left before it was a war zone...

Generally people flee ahead of the arrival of the fighting. Perhaps you don't have experience with this in your family. I do, since my mother's family was dispossesed in Georgia and fled ahead of Sherman to Jacksonville. We didn't wait for the fighting so we could be burned up in our home.

Also, fleeing a war zone to go to the nation of the invader is not the same as simply fleeing the war zone. It is collaberating with the enemy.

The Palestinians could hardly flee to the nation of the invader when they fled from a part of Palestine under Jordanian or Egyptian or Lebanese control to a part of those countries outside Palestine. They remained within the same sovereign territory the entire time.

Worth reading:

David Ben-Gurion declared in 1938, "after we become a strong force, as a result of the creation of a state, we shall abolish partition and expand into the whole of Palestine" In 1948, Menachem Begin said, "The partition of the Homeland is illegal. It will never be recognized. The signature of institutions and individuals of the partition agreement is invalid. It will not bind the Jewish people. Jerusalem was and will forever be our capital. Eretz Israel (the land of Israel) will be restored to the people of Israel, All of it. And forever".

http://encyclopedia.thefreedictionary.com/1947%20Partition%20plan%20for%20Palestine

I suppose you think the plantations of the south should be returned to the slaveholders?

Yes, I'd like my family's property back, or at least fair compensation. It is currently held by the US Government as Kings Bay Naval Submarine Base. We were never given anything for it or for the senseless or needless destruction of our property and possessions.

50 posted on 08/31/2004 7:18:50 AM PDT by Hermann the Cherusker
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