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Radio Replies Second Volume - Is Bible Reading Forbidden to Catholics?
Celledoor.com ^ | 1940 | Fathers Rumble & Carty

Posted on 07/20/2010 2:21:39 AM PDT by GonzoII

Is Bible Reading Forbidden to Catholics?



454. Despite the tributes you pay to the Bible, Rome is hostile to it, and does not want her people to read it.

That is not true. In fact the Catholic Church grants special spiritual favors to those who will read Holy Scripture daily.

455. Pope Pius VII. in 1816 denounced Bible Societies as a crafty device by which the very foundations of religion are undermined.

He condemned the circulation of inaccurate translations by Protestant Societies; and the Protestant principle that all should read Scripture for themselves, interpreting it according to their own private judgment, however little qualified they might be to arrive at a sound judgment. He gave as his reason that different readers would arrive at different conclusions, and that the ideal given by St. Paul would be destroyed. For St. Paul wrote, "I beseech you that you all speak the same thing, being of the same mind and the same judgment." 1 Cor 1:10. And the Pope was right. The chaos in doctrinal beliefs amongst Protestants is experimental proof of it. And Pope Pius VII justly quoted St. Augustine's words, "Heresies would not have arisen unless men had read good Scripture badly, and rashly asserted their own mistakes to be the truth." But this does not prove that Rome is hostile to the Bible. The Catholic Church most carefully preserved the Bible through the ages — a most foolish procedure did she regard the Bible as evil. In fact, her solicitude for the correct understanding of the Bible, and for its integrity, is obviously dictated by a deep reverence for the Word of God.

456. Pope Pius VIII, Leo XIII, and Pius IX also warned Catholics against Protestant Bible Societies.

They did so for exactly the same reasons as Pius VII. Catholics believe in a teaching Church. Protestants believe in the reading of the Bible, and its interpretation as each one thinks fit. And this idea is the mainspring of Protestant Societies for the multiplication of Bibles in all languages. And what is the result? We see innumerable Protestant divisions, with many radical differences even within the same sects! Where is the consistency which is the hall-mark of truth? Many, too, are drifting from belief in the Bible altogether, openly denying its value; and the Catholic Church now has to defend it against the very ones who accused her of hostility towards it. It is Protestantism that has proved to be the real enemy of the Bible, not Catholicism.

Encoding copyright 2009 by Frederick Manligas Nacino. Some rights reserved.
Creative Commons Attribution-Noncommercial-No Derivative Works 3.0
http://www.celledoor.com/cpdv-ebe/


TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; History
KEYWORDS: bible; radiorepliesvoltwo; scripture
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To: lastchance
Don't fall for the five solas -- they came with the Protestant Reformation!
 
The Five Solas are Latin phrases that emerged during the Protestant reformation.  
 

21 posted on 07/20/2010 8:33:11 AM PDT by Salvation ("With God all things are possible." Matthew 19:26)
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To: Campion

“There’s not a single verse in the NT that identifies anyone except Jesus as a (biological) son or daughter of Mary.”

Hello? Matthew 13:55

Deny the obvious at your own peril.


22 posted on 07/22/2010 3:47:09 AM PDT by thatjoeguy (Wind is just air, but pushier.)
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To: lastchance

“Nowhere in Scripture does it say that Salvation is by faith alone.”

I said that its BY Grace alone, THROUGH Faith alone and I left the passage for you to check for yourself. Ephesians 2:8-9

Why do you (several of you actually) put words in my statement that I never said?

Ephesians 2:8-9 8) For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9) Not of works, lest any man should boast.


23 posted on 07/22/2010 3:54:02 AM PDT by thatjoeguy (Wind is just air, but pushier.)
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To: vladimir998

“Mary was immaculately conceived”

Where is this in scripture?


24 posted on 07/22/2010 3:57:24 AM PDT by thatjoeguy (Wind is just air, but pushier.)
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To: thatjoeguy

“Where is this in scripture?”

Where in scripture is it that it has to be explicitly in scripture?


25 posted on 07/22/2010 4:04:35 AM PDT by vladimir998 (Part of the Vast Catholic Conspiracy (hat tip to Kells))
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To: thatjoeguy

So you did. But the disagreement between Protestants and Catholics/Orthodox is not about whether Salvation is by Grace alone but whether we are justified by faith alone or if the acts of charity (I’ll use this phrase to distinguish them from works of law) actually can increase our justification.

Catholics believe these acts are initiated by grace and that we by reason of our free will may respond to this grace. But they are not to our merit because the grace which inspired them comes from God and not out of our own hearts.

It also has to do with the Reformed teaching of imputed righteousness vs Catholic/Orthodox teaching of infused righteousness. Catholics do not believe in a forensic justification.
Writings on which are numerous to give anybody and major headache.
So that is why I put words in your statement to clarify just what the debate is. It was not my intent in any way to dismiss or belittle your comments.


26 posted on 07/22/2010 6:49:46 AM PDT by lastchance (Hug your babies.)
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To: vladimir998

“Where in scripture is it that it has to be explicitly in scripture?”

It appears your mincing words. It doesn’t have to be explicit and I didn’t mean to ask for an explicit statement. What I’m looking for simply is where do you find this in scripture? As in the Trinity which is not explicitly taught but can easily be found in scripture if one were to look.

The scripture verses I find pertinent are as follows:
Galatians 1:8-9 8) But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. 9) As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.

Jude 1:3 Beloved, when I gave all diligence to write unto you of the common salvation, it was needful for me to write unto you, and exhort you that ye should earnestly contend for the faith which was once delivered unto the saints.

2 Timothy 3:16-17 16) All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17) That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.


27 posted on 07/24/2010 5:59:49 AM PDT by thatjoeguy (Wind is just air, but pushier.)
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To: thatjoeguy

You wrote:

“It appears your mincing words.”

Nope. I am pointing out something that is extremely important. If someone is going to rely on sola scriptura then it makes perfect sense for someone to question sola scriptura. If sola scriptura is not found in scripture, then it is self-refuting.

“It doesn’t have to be explicit and I didn’t mean to ask for an explicit statement. What I’m looking for simply is where do you find this in scripture? As in the Trinity which is not explicitly taught but can easily be found in scripture if one were to look.”

Sorry, but you’re still using sola scriptura. Do you believe the Gospel of Matthew is inspired? Where is that in the Bible? Where in the Bible does it say Matthew wrote a gospel?

“The scripture verses I find pertinent are as follows:
Galatians 1:8-9 8)”

We preach the same gospel as St. Paul. What we don’t do is assume that all truths are written explicitly in scripture. Neither do you, but logically you can’t admit that whenever it comes to a Catholic doctrine.

“Jude 1:3”

Again, that doesn’t contradict anything taught by the Church.

“2 Timothy 3:16-17 16)”

This is not a proof text for sola scriptura. It says that scripture is inspired. It never mentions anything like sola scriptura.

Again, how do you know Matthew’s gospel is inspired? How do you know Matthew wrote it?


28 posted on 07/24/2010 6:34:35 AM PDT by vladimir998 (Part of the Vast Catholic Conspiracy (hat tip to Kells))
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