Posted on 08/10/2011 8:11:57 AM PDT by janereinheimer
yes, we do disagree. you keep mentioning “water baptism” vs. “spiritual baptism”, that would mean there are two different baptisms. with all due respect, the Scriptures are quite clear, there is only ONE baptism.
notice Acts 9:17 you reference, Jesus sent Ananias to Saul so he may regain his sight and receive the Holy Spirit.
why didn’t Jesus give the Holy Spirit to Saul on the road to Damacus? the reason is Jesus gave His authority to the Church to teach and baptize ( Matthew 28 ) Saul received the Holy Spirit when he was baptized, just as everyone else does. this matches what Peter preached in Acts 2:38.
i am glad you believe in the Holy Spirit, in fact 1 Corinthians 2:14 tells us the natural man can’t understand spiritual matters without the Holy Spirit. since we know that is true and we know the Holy Spirit has been with the Church since Pentecost, we should be able to find Christians in all 2,000 years of Church history that believe in your “two baptism” theory. this just is not the case. i invite you to search Church history, read the early Church Fathers and you will discover they taught and believed in one baptism for the forgiveness of sins ( as the Nicene Creed says ) there was never any controversy on the doctrine of baptism, until the 16th century, when this “two baptism” doctrine was first introduced.
i invite you to discover what the Church has always believed on baptism, and then re-read the NT letting the Holy Spirit guide you in the same way He has guided Christians for 2,000 years. May God bless you and lead you.
couldn’t find three Christians before the 16th century that believe as you do about “two baptisms”?
wow, what a powerful statement about this false teaching!
you beat me to it by quoting 1 Peter 3:21, it plainly says “baptism, which corresponds to this, now SAVES YOU”
titus 3:5 says we are saved by the washing of regeneration and renewal of the Holy Spirit.
it’s amazing what the Scriptures teach when you actually read them.
would you be kind enough to point me to the Scriptures that teach any of the following:
1. where the term “water baptism” is used
2. where the term “spirit baptism” is used
3. where anyone was told to ask Jesus into their heart and accept Him as their Lord and Savior
4. where anyone was told to be baptized now that they have been saved to be obedient to the Lord
5. where anyone was told to be water baptized as a public display of faith
i have read the NT and can’t find any of these doctrines taught.
finally, why did Jesus say all authority was given to Him in Matthew 28 and then instructed the Church to teach and BAPTIZE? why does the Church Baptize?
anyone who rejects baptismal regeneration, rejects 2,000 years of Christian belief.
the point is, baptism is not a “work”
a “work” is something you do, and yes, excercising faith is a work by definition.
no one can baptize themself, baptism is something done TO you, not done BY you.
1 Peter says: :when God’s patience waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through water. 21Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,”
Baptism by water corresponds to the flood. Now, did the Flood save Noah from sin, or did it separate him from the wicked around him? Hmmm?
Did the Flood make it possible for Noah to know God, or did knowing God result in Noah building an Ark?
Also:
Water baptism is often referred to, since most baptism involve water. However, John the Baptist and the Apostles refer to baptism in the Spirit as well:
“Mat 3:11 “I baptize you with water for repentance, but he who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.
Mar 1:8 I have baptized you with water, but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.”
Luk 3:16 John answered them all, saying, “I baptize you with water, but he who is mightier than I is coming, the strap of whose sandals I am not worthy to untie. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.
Jhn 1:33 I myself did not know him, but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’”
Also, as noted, 1 Cor 12:
“13For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body— Jews or Greeks, slaves or free—and all were made to drink of one Spirit.”
If you haven’t been baptized in the Spirit - the ONE BAPTISM that is critical - then you don’t belong to Christ and are not part of the ONE BODY.
And when the same writer wrote: “4There is one body and one Spirit—just as you were called to the one hope that belongs to your call— 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.”, was he referring to water baptism (in contradiction to what he wrote the Corinthians), or was he writing about baptism in the Spirit? Did Paul disagree with Paul?
What did the early church say?
“15 As I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell on them just as on us at the beginning. 16 And I remembered the word of the Lord, how he said, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ 17 If then God gave the same gift to them as he gave to us when we believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God’s way?” 18 When they heard these things they fell silent. And they glorified God, saying, “Then to the Gentiles also God has granted repentance that leads to life.” - Acts 11
Note they didn’t even ask if Peter had baptized them with water. Why should they? It was the baptism of the Holy Spirit, in response to belief in Jesus Christ, that mattered.
As for a scripture about asking Jesus into your heart:
“20Behold, I stand at the door and knock. If anyone hears my voice and opens the door, I will come in to him and eat with him, and he with me. 21 The one who conquers, I will grant him to sit with me on my throne, as I also conquered and sat down with my Father on his throne. 22 He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches.’”
I don’t like the ‘ask Jesus into your heart’ terminology, but it is not wrong. Frankly, many modern people don’t know what the word repent means.
You ought to study the role of baptism in Jewish practice before writing about how it is used in the New Testament. The huge influx of Gentiles into the church when Constantine made Christianity ‘acceptable’ was a disaster for doctrine. There were too many heathens brought in, and those heathens brought in heathen ideas contrary to the word of God.
The scriptures know NOTHING about water baptism causing one to be born again. There has NEVER been any indication in 2000 years that sprinkling a baby with water has any impact on his eventual salvation. Those who are dead in sin do not become alive, and those who are sick are not healed, and those who are blind do not see and those who are captive are not freed when water is sprinkled on them. Baptismal regeneration is unknown in scripture because no man has ever been turned to God by baptism, but turns to God first to be baptized.
The heathen magic came to be relied on instead of the Word of God, to the huge shame of the Gentile Church.
“excercising faith is a work by definition”
Not in scripture. It is CONTRASTED with works:
“For there is no distinction: 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith...It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
27 Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? By a law of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law....
... 3For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” 4Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due.
5And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness...
22That is why his faith was “counted to him as righteousness.” 23But the words “it was counted to him” were not written for his sake alone, 24but for ours also.
It will be counted to us who believe in him who raised from the dead Jesus our Lord, 25 who was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification.”
i read your post three times because i couldn’t believe what you were writing.
Peter says explicitly that “baptism now saves you” why? not because the skin is dirty but because of the remission of sin and gift of the Holy Spirit that it provides.
you keep referring to “water baptism” and “spirit baptism” as if there are two SEPERATE BAPTISMS.
The Holy Spirit knew this heresy would arise 1,500 years after He inspired Paul to write Ephesians 4.
People who hold to this “two baptism” teaching have a real problem that they to do this have not been able to solve. Namely, if Spirit Baptism is the only Baptism that is required and it is the one baptism of Ephesians 4, then what is water baptism for? various answers are given, some say it is a first act of obedience. well, that sounds nice, but is there are Scripture to support it? some say it is a publice display of the persons new faith. again, where was anyone told that in Scripture?
Jesus obviously thought baptism was very important, He told the Church all authority was given to Him and He gave this authority to the Church to TEACH AND BAPTIZE.
in 1 Corinthians, Paul tells us the natural man can not understand spiritual things. this is exactly the problem the two baptism people have. they look at history and the entire Church taught baptismal regeneration for 1,500 years, so they need to blame “Constantine” and “heathens” for this pagan practice. again that sounds good, but it doesn’t explain all the Church Fathers before Constantine that taught baptismal regneration including Justin Martyr in the mid 2nd century. it makes no sense.
what is more likely and reasonable?
1. the Church, inspired and led by the Holy Spirit correctly understood what baptism is and has faithfully taught and baptized for 2,000 years or
2. the Church went apostate almost immediately after St John died and started teaching falsely that water baptism is the same as spirit baptism, and then the Holy Spirit correctly inspired men in the 16th century to re-establish the Church from the pagan inspired existing Church.
the Scriptures tell us false teachers will arise and lead many astray.
flee from this two baptism tradition of men.
you mention the “Gentile Church”, is that different than the “Jewish Church”?
do the Scriptures ever refer or mention the “Gentile Church”?
“Peter says explicitly that “baptism now saves you” why? not because the skin is dirty but because of the remission of sin and gift of the Holy Spirit that it provides.”
No, that is explicitly NOT what Peter says, which is why I quote him instead of providing a biased paraphrase. What he explicitly says is that baptism corresponds to the Flood:
“...when God’s patience waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through water. 21Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,”
Now, did the Flood save Noah from his sin? Did the Flood make it possible for Noah to know God?
Or did Noah know and believe God first, and the Flood separate him from the evil generation around him?
Please read what Peter wrote by the will of God, and not put words into his mouth.
“you keep referring to “water baptism” and “spirit baptism” as if there are two SEPERATE BAPTISMS. / The Holy Spirit knew this heresy would arise 1,500 years after He inspired Paul to write Ephesians 4.”
Again, try reading what God inspired to be written:
“13For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body— Jews or Greeks, slaves or free—and all were made to drink of one Spirit.” - 1 Cor 12
Is the “One Baptism” a baptism of water? What does Paul write under the authority of God? The immersion that counts - the ONE BAPTISM that makes us Christian - is the baptism of the Holy Spirit, when we drink of one Spirit!
Gal 3: “This is the only thing I want to find out from you: did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith? 3 Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh?”
Romans 8: “9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him.”
John 1: “I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, ‘He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.”
John 6: “63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life. 64 But there are some of you who do not believe.”
“People who hold to this “two baptism” teaching have a real problem that they to do this have not been able to solve. Namely, if Spirit Baptism is the only Baptism that is required and it is the one baptism of Ephesians 4, then what is water baptism for? various answers are given, some say it is a first act of obedience. well, that sounds nice, but is there are Scripture to support it? some say it is a publice display of the persons new faith. again, where was anyone told that in Scripture?”
Water baptism is the outward symbol. Perhaps you should research what baptism meant in the time of Jesus. Baptism was not started by Christians. It had gone of for centuries, both by Gentiles and Jews.
Please notice that in scripture, what counts is the Spirit. No one pretends in the New Testament that water baptism is a magic rite that causes a man to be born a new creation, alive to God. Baptism with water was done AFTER conversion, not to make conversion possible!
Now, I have pointed out multiple passages speaking of the baptism in the Spirit, and there are more. There are also many passages speaking of baptism with water, so we KNOW there are two baptisms - yet only ONE of those makes you a Christian.
And it is NOT water.
“you mention the “Gentile Church”, is that different than the “Jewish Church”?”
The ministry of Paul - was he an Apostle to the Jews, or was the focus of his ministry to the Gentiles? What about Peter?
“7On the contrary, when they saw that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter had been entrusted with the gospel to the circumcised 8(for he who worked through Peter for his apostolic ministry to the circumcised worked also through me for mine to the Gentiles)...” - Gal 2
There is one church, but to pretend the incoming Gentiles were as well versed in the Old Testament or in God’s revelation as the Jews were is silly. However, at the time of Jesus, many Gentiles were also well aware of what baptism involved. Later, those converting did not, and they brought with them evil ideas of magic - the error of Simon Magus.
In 2,000 years, has there ever been any evidence that water baptism, apart from repentance and faith, changes a man’s life? How many baptized unbelievers have you met? I’ve met many. Is anyone made a regenerated child of God apart from faith?
Please review the 200+ verses linked to below, and let me know if water saves you, or if believing the word of God does.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G4100&t=ESV
let’s test your theory with the experience of Saul as related in the book of Acts.
first, we must realize anyone reading Acts, would have read Acts 2:37 when Peter was asked “what shall we do?”
these were unbelievers, hearing Peter preach Jesus Christ and Him crucified on Pentecost.
what did Peter say? v38”Repent and be BAPTIZED every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ ( now they may have been wondering why should we be baptized, Peter goes on to explain what Christian baptism is for ) FOR THE FORGIVENESS OF YOUR SINS AND YOU SHALL RECEIVE THE GIFT OF THE HOLY SPIRIT”
he didn’t say believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be “spirit baptized” and then as an act of obedience we will “water baptize” you. no, we don’t find language like that anywhere.
ok, we know Luke already established the doctrine of baptism in Acts 2, let’s go back to Saul’s experience in Acts 9. starting in verse 10, we read Jesus tells Ananias in a vision to go to Saul. He is afraid, but obeys the Lord.
in v17, he tells Saul why Jesus sent him. Pay close attention, there are TWO reasons given:
“so Ananias departed and entered the house. and laying his hands on him he said, Brother Saul, the Lord who appeared to you on the road by which you came, has sent me THAT YOU MAY REGAIN YOUR SIGHT AND BE FILLED WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT.”
so, we have two things Ananias was sent to do:
1. restore Saul’s sight
2. impart the Holy Spirit
how did he accomplish these two things?
1. the sight was restored by laying hands on him.
2. the Holy Spirit was imparted by his BAPTIZING him in v18.
how do we know he received the Holy Spirit thru being baptized by Ananias? because Luke already told us what baptism was for earlier in Acts 2:38 and later in Acts 22:16, Ananias said to Saul “and now why do you wait? rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name”
those who hold to the two baptism heresy, forget that the Pauline Epistles were written to believers. These believers were already told what baptism is for, so when Paul wrote to the Corinthians:
“13For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body— Jews or Greeks, slaves or free—and all were made to drink of one Spirit.” - 1 Cor 12
the believers already knew there was one baptism that was for the remission of sins and receiving the Holy Spirit. Paul did not use words like “spirit baptism” and “water baptism”, because the believers were already taught there is ONE baptism and whether Gentile or Jew, they knew what this baptism was for.
you also are under the impression that when more and more Gentiles came into the Church, they brought with them pagan beliefs, including changing the doctrine of baptism.
let’s explore this if we can, because i have never heard this before. we know from Church history, that when a new doctrine that deviates from orthodox belief was introduced, there was great push back from the true Christians.
for example, when Arius taught Jesus was a created being and not Divine, the Council of Nicea slapped this heresy down.
now, we would both agree if a Baptist pastor today would teach baptismal regeneration, he would be fired or lose the majority of his congregation, can we agree on that?
so hopefully we can both agree that if a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th century pastor started teaching “baptismal regeneration”, when the orthodox belief up to that point was your “two baptism” doctrine, there would have been great push back. this would be heresy, correct?
so if the Church at Corinth started teaching “baptismal regeneration” we could expect the following to have happened:
1. upheaval in Corinth at this new doctrine
2. to be able to trace the new doctrine to an individual, such as Arius or Luther
3. pushback from the other Churches at Rome or Antioch for example.
4. maybe even a Council to be called to settle the matter.
did we find anything like this in history?
when and where was “baptismal regeneration” first taught and believed?
who was the first teacher of this heresy?
who defended the biblical position when it was first introduced?
history is quite clear, please enlighten me on the history of this pagan idea that came into the Church.
There were two times Peter mentioned baptism in conjunction with salvation. There were also a number of times where he preached salvation without mentioning baptism at all: Acts 3, 4, 5, 10 (”To him all the prophets bear witness that everyone who believes in him receives forgiveness of sins through his name”), 11 (”16And I remembered the word of the Lord, how he said, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ 17If then God gave the same gift to them as he gave to us when we believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God’s way?”).
Either Peter was incomplete in his preaching all those other times, or there is something different about the two times where he links salvation with baptism.
I’ve pointed out one of those times - 1 Peter 3. There, the salvation Peter is talking about is salvation from the world (sanctification), since he says baptism “corresponds” to the Flood ‘saving’ Noah.
AS for Acts 2, either Peter in one instance proclaimed something no one else proclaimed in the scripture, or you are misreading it:
“In Acts 2:38, Peter appears to link forgiveness of sins to baptism. But there are several plausible interpretations of this verse that do not connect forgiveness of sin with baptism. It is possible to translate the Greek preposition eis—”because of,” or “on the basis of,” instead of “for.” It is used in that sense in Matthew 3:11; 12:41; and Luke 11:32.
It is also possible to take the clause “and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ” as parenthetical. Support for that interpretation comes from that fact that “repent” and “your” are plural, while “be baptized” is singular, thus setting it off from the rest of the sentence. If that interpretation is correct, the verse would read “Repent (and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ) for the forgiveness of your sins.” Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament (cf. Luke 24:47; John 3:18; Acts 5:31; 10:43; 13:38; 26:18; Ephesians 5:26).
A third possibility exists, as Wallace explains in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics:
It is possible that to a first-century Jewish audience (as well as to Peter), the idea of baptism might incorporate both the spiritual reality and the physical symbol. In other words, when one spoke of baptism, he usually meant both ideas—the reality and the ritual. Peter is shown to make the strong connection between these two in chapters 10 and 11. In 11:15-16 he recounts the conversion of Cornelius and friends, pointing out that at the point of their conversion they were baptized by the Holy Spirit. After he had seen this, he declared, “Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit...” (10:47).
The point seems to be that if they have had the internal testimony of the Holy Spirit via spiritual baptism, there ought to be a public testimony/acknowledgment via water baptism as well. This may not only explain Acts 2:38 (viz., that Peter spoke of both reality and picture, though only the reality removes sins), but also why the NT speaks of only baptized believers (as far as we can tell): Water baptism is not a cause of salvation, but a picture; and as such it serves both as a public acknowledgment (by those present) and a public confession (by the convert) that one has been Spirit-baptized.”
http://www.gty.org/Resources/Questions/QA79#.Tka-kmNN-l5
Acts 9:
Paul, on the road, is told, “I am Jesus whom you are persecuting, 6 but get up and enter the city, and it will be told you what you must do.”
What is the outcome?
“So Ananias departed and entered the house, and after laying his hands on him said, “Brother Saul, the Lord Jesus, who appeared to you on the road by which you were coming, has sent me so that you may regain your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit.” 18 And immediately there fell from his eyes something like scales, and he regained his sight, and he got up and was baptized; 19 and he took food and was strengthened.”
Based on that, we should be laying on hands, not baptizing. His sight was restored when he was filled with the Holy Spirit, and THEN he was baptized.
Or perhaps, if you wish to base theology on this incident, we should say potlucks save us: “and he took food and was strengthened.”
As for when the pagan idea of baptism being a magical rite entered the Church, perhaps it was with Simon Magus.
But what we can say categorically is that for 2000 years, there are people who have been baptized in water yet who did not ever believe. And it should be obvious that for adults, belief PRECEDES baptism, not baptism belief. Yet if it is baptism that causes us to be born again, then baptism should precede conversion. Shoot, priests ought to run around, sprinkling water on anyone they find on the streets and hastily say ‘in the name of the Father, the Son & the Holy Ghost’ so that folks would be converted regardless!
Frankly, if you tie this idea with the equally unscriptural idea that the wine becomes the blood of Jesus, then we ought to be able to save every wino in the world:
“He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.” - John 6
That is the folly of believing in magic instead of believing in God. “Therefore repent of this wickedness of yours, and pray the Lord that, if possible, the intention of your heart may be forgiven you. For I see that you are in the gall of bitterness and in the bondage of iniquity.”
Magic doesn’t save you. Priests do not save you. We are saved by grace through faith, not by water. We are saved when Jesus baptizes us with Him into His death and Life:
“Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? 4 Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life. 5 For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall also be in the likeness of His resurrection, 6 knowing this, that our old self was crucified with Him, in order that our body of sin might be done away with, so that we would no longer be slaves to sin; 7 for he who has died is freed from sin.
8 Now if we have died with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with Him, 9 knowing that Christ, having been raised from the dead, is never to die again; death no longer is master over Him. 10 For the death that He died, He died to sin once for all; but the life that He lives, He lives to God. 11 Even so consider yourselves to be dead to sin, but alive to God in Christ Jesus.”
That is not water, but believing, repenting, and trusting: faith in God. That is the Baptism of Jesus in the Holy Spirit, as Paul wrote:
“For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body— Jews or Greeks, slaves or free—and all were made to drink of one Spirit.” - 1 Cor 12
11 “I baptize you with water for repentance, but he who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire. 12His winnowing fork is in his hand, and he will clear his threshing floor and gather his wheat into the barn, but the chaff he will burn with unquenchable fire.” - Matt 3
i can always tell i am dealing with heresy when someone argues the Bible has not been translated properly. there are Greek experts that are both Catholic and Protestant and every Bible i have ever seen translates Acts 2:38 exactly as i said - the Holy Spirit could not have made Peter explain it any better “for the remission of sins and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit”
usually it is Jehovah’s Witnesses who are arguing John 1 with me.
God does not require us all to be Greek experts to understand what baptism is for.
everyone should ask themself, why did Saul need Ananias to be sent to him to receive the Holy Spirit. wouldn’t he be “spirit baptized” and receive the Holy Spirit the moment he believed? he didn’t need Ananias to believe and there is no record of Ananias preaching to him.
the answer again is very clearly taught in the Scripture, he needed Ananias to regain his sight and this was accomplished when hands were laid on him. but to receive the Holy Spirit, he needed to be baptized and needed Ananias to baptize him, so he could receive forgiveness of his sins and receive the Holy Spirit. all of this is contained right in the Book of Acts
i am always amazed at those that mock Christianity by accusing it of teaching “magic” or mock Christians for believing Jesus when he said “This is My Body”.
but then i realize the natural man can’t understand the spiritual without the Holy Spirit, it seems like foolishness ( maybe magic? ) to him.
i notice no explianation is forthcoming on why the whole Christian world believed in “pagan magic” for 1,500 years before the Baptists showed up in the 16th century.
all we are given is accusations of being pagan. it’s a shame these pagans didn’t realize they were pagan, it could have stopped some of them from being torn apart by lions in the Coliseum.
Jesus commanded the Church to baptize, and to do it with the authority it received from Him. Why did He command this? hint: He wasn’t concerned about believers being obedient to Him and He wasn’t concerned that there be a public display of faith.
finally, the comment was made that priests do not save us. AGREED!! but just as Ananias was sent to Saul so he could receive the Holy Spirit, priests are ordained with the authority received from Jesus Himself so we can receive the Holy Spirit.
no one should believe this 16th century tradition of men, rather we should all believe the Apostolic Faith taught and believed now for 2,000 years. there is not a “spirit baptism” and a “water baptism”, no the NT only teaches baptism, ONE BAPTISM.
“i can always tell i am dealing with heresy when someone argues the Bible has not been translated properly.”
I did not say that, did I?
I said you applied it incorrectly.
“Unto the remission of your sins (eiv apesin twn amartiwn –mwn).
This phrase is the subject of endless controversy as men look at it from the standpoint of sacramental or of evangelical theology. In themselves the words can express aim or purpose for that use of eiv does exist as in 1 Corinthians 2:7 eiv doxan hmwn (for our glory). But then another usage exists which is just as good Greek as the use of eiv for aim or purpose. It is seen in Matthew 10:41 in three examples eiv onoma prophtou, dikaiou, mathtou where it cannot be purpose or aim, but rather the basis or ground, on the basis of the name of prophet, righteous man, disciple, because one is, etc. It is seen again in Matthew 12:41 about the preaching of Jonah (eiv to khrugma Iwna). They repented because of (or at) the preaching of Jonah. The illustrations of both usages are numerous in the N.T. and the Koine generally (Robertson, Grammar, p. 592). One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received.”
http://www.studylight.org/com/rwp/view.cgi?book=ac&chapter=002&verse=038
In modern English use, the phrase “be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins” can mean EITHER do it to receive forgiveness, or do it because of the forgiveness...and in the Greek, the ambiguity is greater.
Since there is no other verse that says forgiveness is given BECAUSE of baptism, and many showing baptism FOLLOWS forgiveness, it seems you are misapplying scripture.
“everyone should ask themself, why did Saul need Ananias to be sent to him to receive the Holy Spirit.”
Umm...because God didn’t choose to preach the Gospel to Paul as an invisible voice? Indeed, as we read in that chapter: “15 But the Lord said to him, “Go, for he is a chosen instrument of Mine, to bear My name before the Gentiles and kings and the sons of Israel; 16 for I will show him how much he must suffer for My name’s sake.” 17 So Ananias departed and entered the house...”
“i notice no explianation is forthcoming on why the whole Christian world believed in “pagan magic” for 1,500 years before the Baptists showed up in the 16th century.”
You can argue history if you wish, and ‘vote’ on truth. I’ll stick to what the word of God says:
“For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body— Jews or Greeks, slaves or free—and all were made to drink of one Spirit.”
Meanwhile, I note you have never answered my question: what of all those people who were baptized without ever believing? Are they saved by water, apart from faith?
And what about the hundreds of verses I linked for you (via an online concordance) showing it is FAITH that saves - we are saved by grace thru faith, not by grace thru baptism - what of those?
A sample:
Jhn 1:12 But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God,
Jhn 3:15 “that whoever believes in him may have eternal life.
Jhn 3:16 “For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.
Jhn 3:18 “Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
Jhn 3:36 Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life; whoever does not obey the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God remains on him.
Jhn 6:29 Jesus answered them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent.”
Jhn 6:35 Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst.
Jhn 6:40 “For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.”
Jhn 6:47 “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes has eternal life.
Jhn 7:38 “Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’”
Jhn 7:39 Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.
Jhn 8:24 “I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am he you will die in your sins.”
Jhn 11:26 “and everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die. Do you believe this?” She said to him, “Yes, Lord; I believe that you are the Christ, the Son of God, who is coming into the world.”...Jhn 11:40 Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed you would see the glory of God?”
Act 4:4 But many of those who had heard the word believed, and the number of the men came to about five thousand.
Act 16:31 And they said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.”
Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.
Rom 3:22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction:
Rom 4:3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.”
Rom 4:5 And to the one who does not work but trusts him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
Rom 4:24 but for ours also. It will be counted to us who believe in him who raised from the dead Jesus our Lord,
Rom 9:33 as it is written, “Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offense; and whoever believes in him will not be put to shame.”
Rom 10:9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
Rom 10:10 For with the heart one believes and is justified, and with the mouth one confesses and is saved.
Rom 10:11 For the Scripture says, “Everyone who believes in him will not be put to shame.”
Gal 2:16 yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
Gal 3:6 just as Abraham “believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness”?
Gal 3:22 But the Scripture imprisoned everything under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.
Eph 1:13 In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit,
1. “or do it because of the forgiveness” to put forth that as a plausible meaning of the verse when NO translator ever translated it that way ( Catholic, Protestant or Orthodox ) is suggesting the Bible is not translated correctly, just like the JW’s do with John 1.
2. “since there is no other verse that suggests forgiveness is given because of baptism”
we don’t even need to leave Acts, try Acts 22:16.
3. “ God chose not to preach to Paul as an invisible voice”
Why not, Jesus had no trouble communicating with him on the road to Damascus. the Scriptures are very clear, Ananias was sent so Paul could receive forgivesness of his sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit by baptizing him. just as Peter preached in Acts 2:38. there are not any verses which say that Ananias preached to Paul at all.
4. “you can argue history all you like and vote on truth”
there is no arguing history, history is very clear the Orthodox view of baptismal regeneration was believed by the Universal Church from day one. as for truth, we look to the pillar of truth, The Church, where the Holy Spirit resides and without whom, spiritual matters can not be understood.
5. i will answer your baptized and not a believer question.
for an adult being baptized, they must profess the Universal Faith of the Church. for those baptized as infants, when they are able to understand who Jesus is, they must either embrace Christ and His Sacrifical death for their sins or they reject Him.
we are saved by grace and the Scriptures are clear this saving grace is received by Baptism.
now, since i answered your question and you ignored mine, maybe you will be kind enough to answer this question:
are you infallible in your teaching that baptism is not for the remission of sins and receiving the Holy Spirit?
“1. “or do it because of the forgiveness” to put forth that as a plausible meaning of the verse when NO translator ever translated it that way”
False. The translation used in the ESV & NASB can both be read that way. The NAB has it:
“Peter (said) to them, “Repent and be baptized, 7 every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;”
Again, this can be read - as is - as either teaching baptismal regeneration OR as teaching baptism in response (for) to forgiveness. The NAB footnote says, “Luke presents baptism in Acts as the expected response to the apostolic preaching about Jesus and associates it with the conferring of the Spirit (Acts 1:5; 10:44-48; 11:16).”
Please note the verses linked to in the footnote:
1:5: “for John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.”
10:44-48: “44While Peter was still saying these things, the Holy Spirit fell on all who heard the word. 45And the believers from among the circumcised who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out even on the Gentiles. 46For they were hearing them speaking in tongues and extolling God. Then Peter declared, 47 “Can anyone withhold water for baptizing these people, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” 48And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.”
11:16: “16And I remembered the word of the Lord, how he said, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’
The NAB footnote emphasizes what I’ve been telling you - that the Baptism by Jesus in the Spirit is critical, and water baptism follow it.
“we don’t even need to leave Acts, try Acts 22:16.
Acts 22: “16And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name.’”
Again, you err in application. Even you agree later in your post that “for an adult being baptized, they must profess the Universal Faith of the Church” - ie, they must call upon his name BEFORE being baptized.
As Paul had - recognizing that it was Jesus who struck him down, and apparently receiving the Spirit with the laying on of hands, NOT at baptism. For we read “And laying his hands on him he said, “Brother Saul, the Lord Jesus who appeared to you on the road by which you came has sent me so that you may regain your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit.” 18And immediately something like scales fell from his eyes, and he regained his sight.”
Only THEN was he baptized in water.
“Verse 16. And now, why tarriest thou? Why dost thou delay, or wait any longer? These words are not recorded by Luke in Acts 9, where he has given an account of the conversion of Paul; but there is nothing here contradictory to his statement.
And wash away thy sins. Receive baptism, as an act expressive of the washing away of sins. It cannot be intended that the external rite of baptism was sufficient to make the soul pure, but that it was an ordinance divinely appointed as expressive of the washing away of sins, or of purifying the heart. Comp. Hebrews 10:22. Sinners are represented in the Scriptures as defiled or polluted by sin. To wash away the sins denotes the purifying of the soul from this polluted influence, 1 Corinthians 6:11; Revelation 1:5; 7:14; Isaiah 1:16; Psalms 51:2,7.
Calling on the name of the Lord. For pardon and sanctification. Romans 10:13, “Whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” It was proper that this calling on the name of the Lord should be connected with the ordinance of baptism. That ordinance was expressive of a purifying which the Lord only could produce. It is proper that the rite of baptism should be attended with extraordinary prayer; and that he who is to be baptized should make it the occasion of peculiar and very solemn religious exercises. The external rite will avail nothing without the pardoning mercy of God.”
http://www.studylight.org/com/bnn/view.cgi?book=ac&chapter=022
Note when the Philippian jailer asked what he must do to be saved, Paul replied, “”Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved...”
And yes, Paul baptized the jailer that very night, which I agree with but which the Catholic Church and most “Church Fathers” say is wrong...but it was believing that qualified him for baptism, not baptism that made him able to believe.
“as for truth, we look to the pillar of truth, The Church, where the Holy Spirit resides and without whom, spiritual matters can not be understood.”
You might want to try reading scripture instead of catechisms.
“15And the Holy Spirit also bears witness to us; for after saying,
16 “This is the covenant that I will make with them
after those days, declares the Lord:
I will put my laws on their hearts,
and write them on their minds,” - Heb 10
“8 And when he comes, he will convict the world concerning sin and righteousness and judgment: 9concerning sin, because they do not believe in me; 10 concerning righteousness, because I go to the Father, and you will see me no longer; 11 concerning judgment, because the ruler of this world is judged.
12”I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. 14He will glorify me, for he will take what is mine and declare it to you.” - John 16
It isn’t the ‘church’ that is filled with the spirit, but BELIEVERS. Jesus baptizes US in the Spirit, as scripture says.
You also might want to review the history of Israel, God’s Chosen People. Were all those who were circumcised Jews? Yes. Were all of them faithful followers, obeying God? Not hardly. We know from scripture that at times there were only thousands of real believers in Israel, yet God still accomplished his purpose.
“Now these things happened to them as an example, but they were written down for our instruction, on whom the end of the ages has come.” - 1 Cor 10
The visible church, like Israel, has included many who had no knowledge of or desire for God. Jesus told us this would happen, but Jesus knows who has been baptized in the Spirit, and who has only been baptized with water:
“24He put another parable before them, saying, “The kingdom of heaven may be compared to a man who sowed good seed in his field, 25but while his men were sleeping, his enemy came and sowed weeds among the wheat and went away. 26So when the plants came up and bore grain, then the weeds appeared also. 27And the servants of the master of the house came and said to him, ‘Master, did you not sow good seed in your field? How then does it have weeds?’ 28He said to them, ‘An enemy has done this.’ So the servants said to him, ‘Then do you want us to go and gather them?’ 29But he said, ‘No, lest in gathering the weeds you root up the wheat along with them. 30Let both grow together until the harvest, and at harvest time I will tell the reapers, Gather the weeds first and bind them in bundles to be burned, but gather the wheat into my barn.’” - Matt 13
Paul agreed:
“28 Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood. 29I know that after my departure fierce wolves will come in among you, not sparing the flock; 30and from among your own selves will arise men speaking twisted things, to draw away the disciples after them.” - Acts 20
So no one should be surprised if the visible church had false teachers leading people astray while claiming to know the truth. But God’s Word is true - as Peter put it, “18we ourselves heard this very voice borne from heaven, for we were with him on the holy mountain. 19And we have something more sure, the prophetic word, to which you will do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts,...”
It is a pity those who claimed to succeed him ignored what he wrote.
“we are saved by grace and the Scriptures are clear this saving grace is received by Baptism.”
Really? Let’s go to the tapes:
“8For by grace you have been saved through faith.” - Eph 2
“2Through him we have also obtained access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and we rejoice in hope of the glory of God.” - Romans 5
We are saved by grace thru faith, not grace thru baptism. We receive it by faith, not baptism, for “we have also obtained access by faith into this grace”, access by faith, not by baptism.
“are you infallible in your teaching that baptism is not for the remission of sins and receiving the Holy Spirit?”
Scripture is the breath of God. I’m quoting it. The words I quote are infallible, but Popes are not...nor are church fathers. Where they stray from scripture, they err.
I’ve given you 200+ verses about believing. There are a like number about faith. Against that, you have one verse in Acts 2, which you interpret as saying water baptism is what is critical - although the same words also, both in Greek and English, support baptism due to forgiveness rather than to give forgiveness.
One against 400+. The infallible teaching of the Catholic Church takes the one and ignores the 400+. If that is being infallible, then let me be a very fallible man!
Thank you, Mr Rogers for attempting to explain the truth. Sanity is as scarce as common sense sometimes. And it is a breath of fresh air! Regards, smvoice.
Scripture
I. Born Again in Water Baptism
John 1:32 - when Jesus was baptized, He was baptized in the water and the Spirit, which descended upon Him in the form of a dove. The Holy Spirit and water are required for baptism. Also, Jesus’ baptism was not the Christian baptism He later instituted. Jesus’ baptism was instead a royal anointing of the Son of David (Jesus) conferred by a Levite (John the Baptist) to reveal Christ to Israel, as it was foreshadowed in 1 Kings 1:39 when the Son of David (Solomon) was anointed by the Levitical priest Zadok. See John 1:31; cf. Matt. 3:16; Mark 1:9; Luke 3:21.
John 3:3,5 - Jesus says, “Truly, truly, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.” When Jesus said “water and the Spirit,” He was referring to baptism (which requires the use of water, and the work of the Spirit).
John 3:22 - after teaching on baptism, John says Jesus and the disciples did what? They went into Judea where the disciples baptized. Jesus’ teaching about being reborn by water and the Spirit is in the context of baptism.
John 4:1 - here is another reference to baptism which naturally flows from Jesus’ baptismal teaching in John 3:3-5.
Acts 8:36 – the eunuch recognizes the necessity of water for his baptism. Water and baptism are never separated in the Scriptures.
Acts 10:47 - Peter says “can anyone forbid water for baptizing these people..?” The Bible always links water and baptism.
Acts 22:16 – Ananias tells Saul, “arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins.” The “washing away” refers to water baptism.
Titus 3:5-6 – Paul writes about the “washing of regeneration,” which is “poured out on us” in reference to water baptism. “Washing” (loutron) generally refers to a ritual washing with water.
Heb. 10:22 – the author is also writing about water baptism in this verse. “Having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water.” Our bodies are washed with pure water in water baptism.
2 Kings 5:14 - Naaman dipped himself seven times in the Jordan, and his flesh was restored like that of a child. This foreshadows the regenerative function of baptism, by water and the Holy Spirit.
Isaiah 44:3 - the Lord pours out His water and His Spirit. Water and the Spirit are linked to baptism. The Bible never separates them.
Ezek. 36:25-27 - the Lord promises He will sprinkle us with water to cleanse us from sin and give us a new heart and spirit. Paul refers to this verse in Heb. 10:22. The teaching of Ezekiel foreshadows the salvific nature of Christian baptism instituted by Jesus and taught in John 3:5, Titus 3:5, 1 Peter 3:21 and Acts 22:16.
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II. Baptism is Salvific, Not Just Symbolic
Matt. 28:19-20 - Jesus commands the apostles to baptize all people “in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit.” Many Protestant churches are now teaching that baptism is only a symbolic ritual, and not what actually cleanses us from original sin. This belief contradicts Scripture and the 2,000 year-old teaching of the Church.
Acts 2:38 - Peter commands them to repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ in order to be actually forgiven of sin, not just to partake of a symbolic ritual.
Matt. 28:19-20; Acts 2:38 - there is nothing in these passages or elsewhere in the Bible about baptism being symbolic. There is also nothing about just accepting Jesus as personal Lord and Savior in order to be saved.
Mark 16:16 - Jesus said “He who believes AND is baptized will be saved.” Jesus says believing is not enough. Baptism is also required. This is because baptism is salvific, not just symbolic. The Greek text also does not mandate any specific order for belief and baptism, so the verse proves nothing about a “believer’s baptism.”
John 3:3,5 - unless we are “born again” of water and Spirit in baptism, we cannot enter into the kingdom of God. The Greek word for the phrase “born again” is “anothen” which literally means “begotten from above.” See, for example, John 3:31 where “anothen” is so used. Baptism brings about salvation, not just a symbolism of our salvation.
Acts 8:12-13; 36; 10:47 - if belief is all one needs to be saved, why is everyone instantly baptized after learning of Jesus?
Acts 16:15; 31-33; 18:8; 19:2,5 - these texts present more examples of people learning of Jesus, and then immediately being baptized. If accepting Jesus as personal Lord and Savior is all one needs to do to be saved, then why does everyone in the early Church immediately seek baptism?
Acts 9:18 - Paul, even though he was directly chosen by Christ and immediately converted to Christianity, still had to be baptized to be forgiven his sin. This is a powerful text which demonstrates the salvific efficacy of water baptism, even for those who decide to give their lives to Christ.
Acts 22:16 - Ananias tells Paul, “arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins,” even though Paul was converted directly by Jesus Christ. This proves that Paul’s acceptance of Jesus as personal Lord and Savior was not enough to be forgiven of his sin and saved. The sacrament of baptism is required.
Acts 22:16 - further, Ananias’ phrase “wash away” comes from the Greek word “apolouo.” “Apolouo” means an actual cleansing which removes sin. It is not a symbolic covering up of sin. Even though Jesus chose Paul directly in a heavenly revelation, Paul had to be baptized to have his sins washed away.
Rom. 6:4 - in baptism, we actually die with Christ so that we, like Him, might be raised to newness of life. This means that, by virtue of our baptism, our sufferings are not in vain. They are joined to Christ and become efficacious for our salvation.
1 Cor. 6:11 - Paul says they were washed, sanctified, and justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, in reference to baptism. The “washing” of baptism gives birth to sanctification and justification, which proves baptism is not just symbolic.
Gal. 3:27 - whoever is baptized in Christ puts on Christ. Putting on Christ is not just symbolic. Christ actually dwells within our soul.
Col. 2:12 - in baptism, we literally die with Christ and are raised with Christ. It is a supernatural reality, not just a symbolic ritual. The Scriptures never refer to baptism as symbolic.
Titus 3:5-7 – “He saved us by the washing of regeneration and renewal in the Holy Spirit, which He poured out on us richly through Jesus Christ, so that we might be justified by His grace and become heirs of eternal life.” This is a powerful text which proves that baptism regenerates our souls and is thus salvific. The “washing of regeneration” “saves us.” Regeneration is never symbolic, and the phrase “saved us” refers to salvation. By baptism, we become justified by His grace (interior change) and heirs of eternal life (filial adoption). Because this refers to baptism, the verse is about the beginning of the life in Christ. No righteous deeds done before baptism could save us. Righteous deeds after baptism are necessary for our salvation.
There is also a definite parallel between John 3:5 and Titus 3:5: (1) John 3:5 – enter the kingdom of God / Titus 3:5 – He saved us. (2) John 3:5 – born of water / Titus 3:5 – washing. (3) John 3:5 – born of the Spirit / Titus 3:5 – renewal in the Spirit.
Heb. 10:22 - in baptism, our hearts are sprinkled clean from an evil conscience (again, dealing with the interior of the person) as our bodies are washed with pure water (the waters of baptism). Baptism regenerates us because it removes original sin, sanctifies our souls, and effects our adoption as sons and daughters in Jesus Christ.
1 Peter 3:21 - Peter expressly writes that “baptism, corresponding to Noah’s ark, now saves you; not as a removal of dirt from the body, but for a clear conscience. “ Hence, the verse demonstrates that baptism is salvific (it saves us), and deals with the interior life of the person (purifying the conscience, like Heb. 10:22), and not the external life (removing dirt from the body). Many scholars believe the phrase “not as a removal of dirt from the body” is in reference to the Jewish ceremony of circumcision (but, at a minimum, shows that baptism is not about the exterior, but interior life). Baptism is now the “circumcision” of the new Covenant (Col. 2:11-12), but it, unlike the old circumcision, actually saves us, as Noah and his family were saved by water.
Again, notice the parallel between Heb. 10:22 and 1 Peter 3:21: (1) Heb. 10:22 – draw near to the sanctuary (heaven) / 1 Peter 3:21 – now saves us. (2) Heb. 10:22 – sprinkled clean, washed with pure water / 1 Peter 3:20-21 – saved through water, baptism. (3) Heb. 10:22 – from an evil conscience (interior) / 1 Peter 3:21 – for a clear conscience (interior). Titus 3:6 and 1 Peter 3:21 also specifically say the grace and power of baptism comes “through Jesus Christ” (who transforms our inner nature).
Mark 16:16 - Jesus says that he who believes and is baptized will be saved. However, the Church has always taught that baptism is a normative, not an absolute necessity. There are some exceptions to the rule because God is not bound by His sacraments.
Luke 23:43 - the good thief, although not baptized, shows that there is also a baptism by desire, as Jesus says to him that he will be in paradise. It should also be noted that when Jesus uses the word “paradise,” He did not mean heaven. Paradise, from the Hebrew “sheol” meant the realm of the righteous dead. This was the place of the dead who were destined for heaven, but who were captive until the Lord’s resurrection. Hence, the good thief was destined for heaven because of his desire to be with Jesus.
Matt. 20:22-23; Mark 10:38-39; Luke 12:50 - there is also a baptism by blood. Lord says, “I have a baptism to be baptized with” referring to His death. Hence, the Church has always taught that those martyred for the faith may be saved without water baptism (e.g., the Holy Innocents).
Mark 10:38 - Jesus says “are you able...to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?,” referring to His death.
1 John 5:6 - Jesus came by water and blood. He was baptized by both water and blood. Martyrs are baptized by blood.
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III. Infant Baptism
Gen. 17:12, Lev. 12:3 - these texts show the circumcision of eight-day old babies as the way of entering into the Old Covenant - Col 2:11-12 - however, baptism is the new “circumcision” for all people of the New Covenant. Therefore, baptism is for babies as well as adults. God did not make His new Covenant narrower than the old Covenant. To the contrary, He made it wider, for both Jews and Gentiles, infants and adults.
Job 14:1-4 - man that is born of woman is full of trouble and unclean. Baptism is required for all human beings because of our sinful human nature.
Psalm 51:5 - we are conceived in the iniquity of sin. This shows the necessity of baptism from conception.
Matt. 18:2-5 - Jesus says unless we become like children, we cannot enter into heaven. So why would children be excluded from baptism?
Matt 19:14 - Jesus clearly says the kingdom of heaven also belongs to children. There is no age limit on entering the kingdom, and no age limit for being eligible for baptism.
Mark 10:14 - Jesus says to let the children come to Him for the kingdom of God also belongs to them. Jesus says nothing about being too young to come into the kingdom of God.
Mark 16:16 - Jesus says to the crowd, “He who believes and is baptized will be saved.” But in reference to the same people, Jesus immediately follows with “He who does not believe will be condemned.” This demonstrates that one can be baptized and still not be a believer. This disproves the Protestant argument that one must be a believer to be baptized. There is nothing in the Bible about a “believer’s baptism.”
Luke 18:15 – Jesus says, “Let the children come to me.” The people brought infants to Jesus that he might touch them. This demonstrates that the receipt of grace is not dependent upon the age of reason.
Acts 2:38 - Peter says to the multitude, “Repent and be baptized..” Protestants use this verse to prove one must be a believer (not an infant) to be baptized. But the Greek translation literally says, “If you repent, then each one who is a part of you and yours must each be baptized” (“Metanoesate kai bapistheto hekastos hymon.”) This, contrary to what Protestants argue, actually proves that babies are baptized based on their parents’ faith. This is confirmed in the next verse.
Acts 2:39 - Peter then says baptism is specifically given to children as well as adults. “Those far off” refers to those who were at their “homes” (primarily infants and children). God’s covenant family includes children. The word “children” that Peter used comes from the Greek word “teknon” which also includes infants.
Luke 1:59 - this proves that “teknon” includes infants. Here, John as a “teknon” (infant) was circumcised. See also Acts 21:21 which uses “teknon” for eight-day old babies. So baptism is for infants as well as adults.
Acts 10:47-48 - Peter baptized the entire house of Cornelius, which generally included infants and young children. There is not one word in Scripture about baptism being limited to adults.
Acts 16:15 - Paul baptized Lydia and her entire household. The word “household” comes from the Greek word “oikos” which is a household that includes infants and children.
Acts 16:15 - further, Paul baptizes the household based on Lydia’s faith, not the faith of the members of the household. This demonstrates that parents can present their children for baptism based on the parents’ faith, not the children’s faith.
Acts 16:30-33 - it was only the adults who were candidates for baptism that had to profess a belief in Jesus. This is consistent with the Church’s practice of instructing catechumens before baptism. But this verse does not support a “believer’s baptism” requirement for everyone. See Acts 16:15,33. The earlier one comes to baptism, the better. For those who come to baptism as adults, the Church has always required them to profess their belief in Christ. For babies who come to baptism, the Church has always required the parents to profess the belief in Christ on behalf of the baby. But there is nothing in the Scriptures about a requirement for ALL baptism candidates to profess their own belief in Christ (because the Church has baptized babies for 2,000 years).
Acts 16:33 - Paul baptized the jailer (an adult) and his entire household (which had to include children). Baptism is never limited to adults and those of the age of reason. See also Luke 19:9; John 4:53; Acts 11:14; 1 Cor. 1:16; and 1 Tim. 3:12; Gen. 31:41; 36:6; 41:51; Joshua 24:15; 2 Sam. 7:11, 1 Chron. 10:6 which shows “oikos” generally includes children.
Rom. 5:12 - sin came through Adam and death through sin. Babies’ souls are affected by Adam’s sin and need baptism just like adult souls.
Rom. 5:15 - the grace of Jesus Christ surpasses that of the Old Covenant. So children can also enter the new Covenant in baptism. From a Jewish perspective, it would have been unthinkable to exclude infants and children from God’s Covenant kingdom.
1 Cor. 1:16 - Paul baptized the household (”oikos”) of Stephanus. Baptism is not limited to adults.
Eph. 1:1; Col. 1:2 - Paul addresses the “saints” of the Church, and these include the children he addresses in Eph. 6:1 and Col. 3:20. Children become saints of the Church only through baptism.
Eph. 2:3 - we are all by nature children of wrath, in sin, like all mankind. Infants are no exception. See also Psalm 51:5 and Job 14:1-4 which teach us we are conceived in sin and born unclean.
2 Thess. 3:10 - if anyone does not work let him not eat. But this implies that those who are unable to work should still be able to eat. Babies should not starve because they are unable to work, and should also not be denied baptism because they are unable to make a declaration of faith.
Matt. 9:2; Mark 2:3-5 - the faith of those who brought in the paralytic cured the paralytic’s sins. This is an example of the forgiveness of sins based on another’s faith, just like infant baptism. The infant child is forgiven of sin based on the parents’ faith.
Matt. 8:5-13 - the servant is healed based upon the centurion’s faith. This is another example of healing based on another’s faith. If Jesus can heal us based on someone else’s faith, then He can baptize us based on someone else’s faith as well.
Mark 9:22-25 - Jesus exercises the child’s unclean spirit based on the father’s faith. This healing is again based on another’s faith.
1 Cor. 7:14 – Paul says that children are sanctified by God through the belief of only one of their parents.
Exodus 12:24-28 - the Passover was based on the parent’s faith. If they did not kill and eat the lamb, their first-born child died.
Joshua 5:2-7 - God punished Israel because the people had not circumcised their children. This was based on the parent’s faith. The parents play a critical role in their child’s salvation.
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IV. Pouring and Sprinkling versus Immersion
Ezek. 36:25 - Ezekiel prophesies that God “will ‘sprinkle’ clean water on you and you shall be clean.” The word for “sprinkle” is “rhaino” which means what it says, sprinkle (not immersion). (“Kai rhaino eph hymas hydor katharon.”)
2 Kings 5:14 - Namaan went down and dipped himself in the Jordan. The Greek word for “dipped” is “baptizo.” Here, baptizo means immersion. But many Protestant churches argue that “baptizo” and related tenses of the Greek word always mean immersion, and therefore the Catholic baptisms of pouring or sprinkling water over the head are invalid. The Scriptures disprove their claim.
Num. 19:18 – here, the verbs for dipping (“baptisantes”) and sprinkled (“bapsei”) refers to affusion (pouring) and sprinkling (aspersion), not immersion.
Matt. 3:11; Mark 1:8; Luke 3:16 -John the Baptist prophesied that Jesus will baptize (”baptisei”) with the Holy Spirit and fire. In this case, “baptisei” refers to a “pouring” out over the head. This is confirmed by Matt. 3:16 where the Holy Spirit descends upon Jesus’ head like a dove and Acts 2:3-4 where the Holy Spirit descended upon Mary and the apostles’ heads in the form of tongues of fire. In each case, in fulfilling John the Baptist’s prophecy, the Lord baptized (”baptizo”) in the form of pouring out His Spirit upon the head, not immersing the person.
Matt. 20:22-23; Mark 10:38-39; Luke 12:50 - Jesus also talks about His baptism (from “baptizo”) of blood, which was shed and sprinkled in His passion. But this baptism does not (and cannot) mean immersion.
Mark 7:3 - the Pharisees do not eat unless they wash (”baptizo” ) their hands. This demonstrates that “baptizo” does not always mean immersion. It can mean pouring water over something (in this case, over their hands).
Mark 7:4 - we see that the Jews washed (”bapto” from baptizo) cups, pitchers and vessels, but this does not mean that they actually immersed these items. Also, some manuscripts say the Jews also washed (bapto) couches, yet they did not immerse the couches, they only sprinkled them.
Luke 11:38 - Jesus had not washed (”ebaptisthe”) His hands before dinner. Here, the derivative of “baptizo” just means washing up, not immersing.
Acts 2:41 - at Peter’s first sermon, 3,000 were baptized. There is archeological proof that immersion would have been impossible in this area. Instead, these 3,000 people had to be sprinkled in water baptism.
Acts 8:38 - because the verse says they “went down into the water,” many Protestants say this is proof that baptism must be done by immersion. But the verb to describe Phillip and the eunuch going down into the water is the same verb (”katabaino”) used in Acts 8:26 to describe the angel’s instruction to Phillip to stop his chariot and go down to Gaza. The word has nothing to do with immersing oneself in water.
Acts 8:39 - because the verse says “they came up out of the water,” many Protestants also use this verse to prove that baptism must be done by immersion. However, the Greek word for “coming up out of the water” is “anebesan” which is plural. The verse is describing that both Phillip and the eunuch ascended out of the water, but does not prove that they were both immersed in the water. In fact, Phillip could not have baptized the eunuch if Phillip was also immersed. Finally, even if this was a baptism by immersion, the verse does not say that baptism by immersion is the only way to baptize.
Acts 9:18; 22:16 - Paul is baptized while standing up in the house of Judas. There is no hot tub or swimming pool for immersion. This demonstrates that Paul was sprinkled.
Acts 10:47-48 - Peter baptized in the house of Cornelius, even though hot tubs and swimming pools were not part of homes. Those in the house had to be sprinkled.
Acts 16:33 - the baptism of the jailer and his household appears to be in the house, so immersion is not possible.
Acts 2:17,18,33 - the pouring of water is like the “pouring” out of the Holy Spirit. Pouring is also called “infusion” (of grace).
1 Cor. 10:2 - Paul says that the Israelites were baptized (”baptizo”) in the cloud and in the sea. But they could not have been immersed because Exodus 14:22 and 15:9 say that they went dry shod. Thus, “baptizo” does not mean immersed in these verses.
Eph. 4:5 - there is only one baptism, just as there is only one Lord and one faith. Once a person is validly baptized by water and the Spirit in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit with the intention of the Church (whether by pouring or immersion), there is no longer a need to rebaptize the person.
Titus 3:6 – the “washing of regeneration” (baptism) is “poured out” upon us. This “pouring out” generally refers to the pouring of baptismal waters over the head of the newly baptized.
Heb. 6:2 – on the doctrine of baptisms (the word used is “baptismos”) which generally referred to pouring and not immersion.
Heb. 10:22 – the author writes, “with our hearts sprinkled clean from an evil conscience.” This “sprinkling” of baptism refers to aspersion, not immersion. The text also parallels 1 Peter 3:21, which expressly mentions baptism and its ability to, like Heb. 10:22, purify the conscience (the interior disposition of a person).
Isaiah 44:3 - the Lord “pours” water on the thirsty land and “pours” His Spirit upon our descendants. The Lord is “pouring,” not “immersing.”
2 Thess. 2:15 - hold fast to the tradition of the Church, whether oral or written. Since the time of Christ, baptisms have been done by pouring or sprinkling.
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V. Original Sin
Gen. 2:17 - the day you eat of that tree, you shall die. Adam and Eve ate of the tree, and they spiritually died. Some Protestant communities ignore or deny the reality of original sin. But if there is no original sin, then we do not need a Savior either. The horrors of our world testify to the reality of original sin.
Gen. 3:14-19 - God’s punishment for eating of the tree was cursing satan, increasing women’s pain in childbirth, and condemning man to toil and labor for his whole life.
Job 14:1,4 - man that is born of woman is of few days and full of trouble. Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? All humans are afflicted with original sin, and this includes babies as well. This is why the Catholic Church has baptized babies for 2,000 years.
Psalm 51:5 - I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me. We have inherited Adam’s sin from the moment of our conception. This is why babies need baptism – to wash away the original sin inherited from Adam and Eve.
Rom. 5:12 - sin came into the world through one man, Adam, and death came through this sin. This sin affects all people, men and women, babies and adults. Through the merits of Jesus Christ, we have the sacrament of baptism to wash away the sin that came through Adam.
Rom. 5:14 - death reigned from Adam to Moses, born from Adam’s original sin. This is a mystery we do not fully understand, but we must all acknowledge our propensity toward evil and our need of God.
Rom. 5:16 - the judgment following one single trespass brought condemnation for all. This means all have inherited the sin of Adam, and all must be washed clean of this sin in the waters of baptism.
Rom. 5:19 - by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners. Original sin is passed on as part of the human condition, and only God in the flesh could atone for our sins by the eternal sacrifice of Himself. Through this sacrifice, God has re-opened the doors to heaven, and through baptism, we are once again made children of God.
1 Cor. 15:21 - for by one man came death. In Adam, all die. In Christ, the new Adam, all now may live.
Eph. 2:1-3 - we were all dead through sin and all lived in the passions of our flesh until Christ came to save us.
Scripture
I. Jesus Christ Granted the Apostles His Authority to Forgive Sins
John 20:21 - before He grants them the authority to forgive sins, Jesus says to the apostles, “as the Father sent me, so I send you.” As Christ was sent by the Father to forgive sins, so Christ sends the apostles and their successors forgive sins.
John 20:22 - the Lord “breathes” on the apostles, and then gives them the power to forgive and retain sins. The only other moment in Scripture where God breathes on man is in Gen. 2:7, when the Lord “breathes” divine life into man. When this happens, a significant transformation takes place.
John 20:23 - Jesus says, “If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven. If you retain the sins of any, they are retained.” In order for the apostles to exercise this gift of forgiving sins, the penitents must orally confess their sins to them because the apostles are not mind readers. The text makes this very clear.
Matt. 9:8 - this verse shows that God has given the authority to forgive sins to “men.” Hence, those Protestants who acknowledge that the apostles had the authority to forgive sins (which this verse demonstrates) must prove that this gift ended with the apostles. Otherwise, the apostles’ successors still possess this gift. Where in Scripture is the gift of authority to forgive sins taken away from the apostles or their successors?
Matt. 9:6; Mark 2:10 - Christ forgave sins as a man (not God) to convince us that the “Son of man” has authority to forgive sins on earth.
Luke 5:24 - Luke also points out that Jesus’ authority to forgive sins is as a man, not God. The Gospel writers record this to convince us that God has given this authority to men. This authority has been transferred from Christ to the apostles and their successors.
Matt. 18:18 - the apostles are given authority to bind and loose. The authority to bind and loose includes administering and removing the temporal penalties due to sin. The Jews understood this since the birth of the Church.
John 20:22-23; Matt. 18:18 - the power to remit/retain sin is also the power to remit/retain punishment due to sin. If Christ’s ministers can forgive the eternal penalty of sin, they can certainly remit the temporal penalty of sin (which is called an “indulgence”).
2 Cor. 2:10 - Paul forgives in the presence of Christ (some translations refer to the presences of Christ as “in persona Christi”). Some say that this may also be a reference to sins.
2 Cor. 5:18 - the ministry of reconciliation was given to the ambassadors of the Church. This ministry of reconciliation refers to the sacrament of reconciliation, also called the sacrament of confession or penance.
James 5:15-16 - in verse 15 we see that sins are forgiven by the priests in the sacrament of the sick. This is another example of man’s authority to forgive sins on earth. Then in verse 16, James says “Therefore, confess our sins to one another,” in reference to the men referred to in verse 15, the priests of the Church.
1 Tim. 2:5 - Christ is the only mediator, but He was free to decide how His mediation would be applied to us. The Lord chose to use priests of God to carry out His work of forgiveness.
Lev. 5:4-6; 19:21-22 - even under the Old Covenant, God used priests to forgive and atone for the sins of others.
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II. The Necessity and Practice of Orally Confessing Sins
James 5:16 - James clearly teaches us that we must “confess our sins to one another,” not just privately to God. James 5:16 must be read in the context of James 5:14-15, which is referring to the healing power (both physical and spiritual) of the priests of the Church. Hence, when James says “therefore” in verse 16, he must be referring to the men he was writing about in verses 14 and 15 – these men are the ordained priests of the Church, to whom we must confess our sins.
Acts 19:18 - many came to orally confess sins and divulge their sinful practices. Oral confession was the practice of the early Church just as it is today.
Matt. 3:6; Mark 1:5 - again, this shows people confessing their sins before others as an historical practice (here to John the Baptist).
1 Tim. 6:12 - this verse also refers to the historical practice of confessing both faith and sins in the presence of many witnesses.
1 John 1:9 - if we confess are sins, God is faithful to us and forgives us and cleanse us. But we must confess our sins to one another.
Num. 5:7 - this shows the historical practice of publicly confessing sins, and making public restitution.
2 Sam. 12:14 - even though the sin is forgiven, there is punishment due for the forgiven sin. David is forgiven but his child was still taken (the consequence of his sin).
Neh. 9:2-3 - the Israelites stood before the assembly and confessed sins publicly and interceded for each other.
Sir. 4:26 - God tells us not to be ashamed to confess our sins, and not to try to stop the current of a river. Anyone who has experienced the sacrament of reconciliation understands the import of this verse.
Baruch 1:14 - again, this shows that the people made confession in the house of the Lord, before the assembly.
1 John 5:16-17; Luke 12:47-48 - there is a distinction between mortal and venial sins. This has been the teaching of the Catholic Church for 2,000 years, but, today, most Protestants no longer agree that there is such a distinction. Mortal sins lead to death and must be absolved in the sacrament of reconciliation. Venial sins do not have to be confessed to a priest, but the pious Catholic practice is to do so in order to advance in our journey to holiness.
Matt. 5:19 - Jesus teaches that breaking the least of commandments is venial sin (the person is still saved but is least in the kingdom), versus mortal sin (the person is not saved).
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Tradition / Church Fathers
I. The Early Church’s Practice of Oral Confession
Do not come to prayer with a guilty conscience.” Epistle of Barnabas, 19:12 (A.D. 74).
“In church confess your sins, and do not come to your prayer with a guilt conscience. Such is the Way of Life...On the Lord’s own day, assemble in common to break bread and offer thanks; but first confess your sins, so that your sacrifice may be pure.” Didache, 4:14,14:1 (c. A.D. 90).
“Moreover, it is in accordance with reason that we should return to soberness[of conduct], and, while yet we have opportunity, exercise repentance towards God. It is well to reverence both God and the bishop.” Ignatius, Epistle to the Smyraeans, 9 (c. A.D. 110).
“Moreover, that this Marcus compounds philters and love-potions, in order to insult the persons of some of these women, if not of all, those of them who have returned to the Church of God—a thing which frequently occurs—have acknowledged, confessing, too, that they have been defiled by him, and that they were filled with a burning passion towards him. A sad example of this occurred in the case of a certain Asiatic, one of our deacons, who had received him (Marcus) into his house. His wife, a woman of remarkable beauty, fell a victim both in mind and body to this magician, and, for a long time, travelled about with him. At last, when, with no small difficulty, the brethren had converted her, she spent her whole time in the exercise of public confession, weeping over and lamenting the defilement which she had received from this magician.” Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 1:13 (A.D. 180).
“Such are the words and deeds by which, in our own district of the Rhone, they have deluded many women, who have their consciences seared as with a hot iron. Some of them, indeed, make a public confession of their sins; but others of them are ashamed to do this, and in a tacit kind of way, despairing of [attaining to] the life of God, have, some of them, apostatized altogether; while others hesitate between the two courses, and incur that which is implied in the proverb, ‘neither without nor within;’ possessing this as the fruit from the seed of the children of knowledge.” Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 1:13 (A.D. 180).
“Father who knowest the hearts of all grant upon this Thy servant whom Thou hast chosen for the episcopate to feed Thy holy flock and serve as Thine high priest, that he may minister blamelessly by night and day, that he may unceasingly behold and appropriate Thy countenance and offer to Thee the gifts of Thy holy Church. And that by the high priestly Spirit he may have authority to forgive sins...” Hippolytus, Apostolic Tradition, 3 (A.D. 215).
“The Pontifex Maximus—that is, the bishop of bishops—issues an edict: ‘I remit, to such as have discharged (the requirements of) repentance, the sins both of adultery and of fornication.’” Tertullian, Modesty, 1 (A.D. 220).
“In addition to these there is also a seventh, albeit hard and laborious: the remission of sins through penance...when he does not shrink from declaring his sin to a priest of the Lord.” Origen, Homilies on Leviticus, 2:4 (A.D. 248).
“For although in smaller sins sinners may do penance for a set time, and according to the rules of discipline come to public confession, and by imposition of the hand of the bishop and clergy receive the right of communion: now with their time still unfulfilled, while persecution is still raging, while the peace of the Church itself is not vet restored, they are admitted to communion, and their name is presented; and while the penitence is not yet performed, confession is not yet made, the hands Of the bishop and clergy are not yet laid upon them, the eucharist is given to them; although it is written, ‘Whosoever shall eat the bread and drink the cup of the Lord unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord.’” Cyprian, To the Clergy, 9 (16):2 (A.D. 250).
“Moreover, how much are they both greater in faith and better in their fear, who, although bound by no crime of sacrifice to idols or of certificate, yet, since they have even thought of such things, with grief and simplicity confess this very thing to God’s priests, and make the conscientious avowal, put off from them the load of their minds, and seek out the salutary medicine even for slight and moderate wounds, knowing that it is written, ‘God is not mocked.’ God cannot be mocked, nor deceived, nor deluded by any deceptive cunning. Yea, he sins the more, who, thinking that God is like man, believes that he evades the penalty of his crime if he has not openly admitted his crime…I entreat you, beloved brethren, that each one should confess his own sin, while he who has sinned is still in this world, while his confession may be received, while the satisfaction and remission made by the priests are pleasing to the Lord?” Cyprian, To the Lapsed, 28-29 (A.D. 251).
“It is necessary to confess our sins to those whom the dispensation of God’s mysteries is entrusted.” Basil, Rule Briefly Treated, 288 (A.D. 374).
“These are capital sins, brethren, these are mortal.” Pacian of Barcelona, Penance, 4 (A.D. 385).
“For if any one will consider how great a thing it is for one, being a man, and compassed with flesh and blood, to be enabled to draw nigh to that blessed and pure nature, he will then clearly see what great honor the grace of the Spirit has vouchsafed to priests; since by their agency these rites are celebrated, and others nowise inferior to these both in respect of our dignity and our salvation. For they who inhabit the earth and make their abode there are entrusted with the administration of things which are in Heaven, and have received an authority which God has not given to angels or archangels. For it has not been said to them, ‘Whatsoever ye shall bind on earth shall be bound in Heaven, and whatsoever ye shall loose on earth shall be loosed in Heaven.’ They who rule on earth have indeed authority to bind, but only the body: whereas this binding lays hold of the soul and penetrates the heavens; and what priests do here below God ratifies above, and the Master confirms the sentence of his servants. For indeed what is it but all manner of heavenly authority which He has given them when He says, ‘Whose sins ye remit they are remitted, and whose sins ye retain they are retained?’ What authority could be greater than this? ‘The Father hath committed all judgment to the Son?’ But I see it all put into the hands of these men by the Son.” John Chrysostom, The Priesthood, 3:5 (A.D. 387).
“The Church holds fast its obedience on either side, by both retaining and remitting sin; heresy is on the one side cruel, and on the other disobedient; wishes to bind what it will not loosen, and will not loosen what it has bound, whereby it condemns itself by its own sentence. For the Lord willed that the power of binding and of loosing should be alike, and sanctioned each by a similar condition…Each is allowed to the Church, neither to heresy, for this power has been entrusted to priests alone. Rightly, therefore, does the Church claim it, which has true priests; heresy, which has not the priests of God, cannot claim it. And by not claiming this power heresy pronounces its own sentence, that not possessing priests it cannot claim priestly power. And so in their shameless obstinacy a shamefaced acknowledgment meets our view. Consider, too, the point that he who has received the Holy Ghost has also received the power of forgiving and of retaining sin. For thus it is written: ‘Receive the Holy Spirit: whosesoever sins ye forgive, they are forgiven unto them, and whosesoever sins ye retain, they are retained.’ So, then, he who has not received power to forgive sins has not received the Holy Spirit. The office of the priest is a gift of the Holy Spirit, and His right it is specially to forgive and to retain sins. How, then, can they claim His gift who distrust His power and His right?” Ambrose, Concerning Repentance, I:7-8 (A.D. 388).
“All mortal sins are to be submitted to the keys of the Church and all can be forgiven; but recourse to these keys is the only, the necessary, and the certain way to forgiveness. Unless those who are guilty of grievous sin have recourse to the power of the keys, they cannot hope for eternal salvation. Open your lips, them, and confess your sins to the priest. Confession alone is the true gate to Heaven.” Augustine, Christian Combat (A.D. 397).
“Just as in the Old Testament the priest makes the leper clean or unclean, so in the New Testament the bishop and presbyter binds or looses not those who are innocent or guilty, but by reason of their office, when they have heard various kinds of sins, they know who is to be bound and who loosed.” Jerome, Commentary on Matthew, 3:16,19 (A.D. 398).
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