Posted on 05/15/2015 5:21:35 PM PDT by NKP_Vet
Historically, the Bible is a Catholic book. The New Testament was written, copied, and collected by Catholic Christians. The official canon of the books of the Bible was authoritatively determined by the Catholic Church in the fourth century. Thus, it is from the Catholic Church that the Protestants have a Bible at all.
(Excerpt) Read more at olswahiawa.org ...
ergo ....Roman Catholics believe Moses was a Roman Catholic. /s
The Apostles used a Greek version of Old Testament in there travels. As Most (80%) of the New testament transpires in Greek speaking areas.
Between 70-90 AD Catholics and Jews shared the same Old Testament. Catholics have the same Books as the Apostles preached from .. Thus fulfilling God wish to not alter the word of God.
Moses was JEWISH
Jesus didn’t say Peter upon this Rock I will build my Synagogue..
*** “Jesus” didn’t tell “Peter” anything. Did you think he said the word “church?”. Also - The name Peter (Gk., Petros) means “rock” or “rock-man.” In the next phrase Christ used petra (upon this rock), a feminine form for “rock,” not a name. Christ used a play on words. He does not say “upon you, Peter” or “upon your successors,” but “upon this rock”—upon this divine revelation and profession of faith in Christ. (https://bible.org/question/what-did-jesus-mean-when-he-said-%E2%80%9Cupon-rock-i-will-build-my-church%E2%80%9D)
You are claiming that Jesus Christ erred when he said it would prevail against the Gates of hell when You Condemn his CATHOLIC CHURCH?
*** No, but reasonable translation doesn’t use the words “catholic church” and if it did it would be with a small “c” (and all the other letters would be small as well, lol)
When Christ gave the Keys to Heaven and Earth only to Peter too? and his successor too? fulfilling the Old Testament steward of David..King of Jews on Earth.. then Replacing the Steward who had key to Davids Kingdom
*** You can take your replacement theology and stick it where the sun don’t shine. The prophecy in scripture that refers to “Israel” means “Israel”. Period. End of argument.
ALL The APOSTLES were Baptized with water and the HOLY SPIRIT.. Thus becoming followers of Christ the Founder of the Catholic Church Greek for Universal.
**All of the Teachings especially Concerning THE REAL PRESENCE of the EUCHARIST are supported by the Early Church fathers.**
Your selection of the ‘early church fathers’ is subject to scutiny. Their words could have been ‘revised’ by the ‘victors’.
Maybe you can tell me what other RCs can’t:
If the ‘eucharist’ is eaten for eternal life, why the repetition?
Does it wear off?
If so, why does it wear off?
If it wears off, does one know when it has worn off?
One time doesn’t have the power to get the job done?
Why is there no detailed written ‘eucharist’ instruction from Peter in his recorded instances of converting souls in Acts chapters 2,8,and 10, or in his epistles? If it is for eternal life, it should be right smack in the middle of Acts 2:38.
So You are saying That when all the Apostles were Baptized and they went out and Baptized Entire families Young and Old Male & female they were JEWISH? Even the GENTILES? Even the Jews That got BAPTIZED?
If you don’t recognize the Fulfillment of Old Testament in the New Testament you are Missing the essence of the Bible, you have thrown away the key that unlocks the TRUTH. By ignoring the writings of the Early Church fathers you are missing the Link to reinforcing the Actions and Thoughts of the Apostles. To Mock the Catholic Church is to Mock Christ.
To Believe SOLA Scriptura means that any Illiterate person since Christ Died on the Cross is not equal too YOU!WOW!
**ALL The APOSTLES were Baptized with water and the HOLY SPIRIT..**
And they always baptized in the name of Jesus. They understood Matt. 28:19:
“Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the NAME of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:..”.
Jesus said ‘name’, not ‘names’. He also didn’t say, “..in the name of the Father, in the name of the Son, and in the name of the Holy Ghost.”.
They also, like their teacher (Jesus Christ), NEVER used the phrase ‘God the Son’; only, the ‘Son of God’.
ergo not a Roman Catholic nor were the Scriptures He wrote, but they were still Holy Scripture and Moses is still a believer.
Transubstantiation takes place at the blessing of Gifts then the Bread and Wine are separately offered up to God in thanksgiving in the celebration of the Liturgy of the Eucharist. We then Say the LORDS Prayer or Our Father depending on your label. During the Prayer jesus Taught the Apostle when they wanted to learn how to pray to the Father.
a Phrase in the Prayer is “Give us this Day our daily Bread”
In The Old Testament it was Mana in the New testament it was Christ who came from Heaven
Read Chapter 6 of JOHN take notice of what Jesus Says about BREAD of LIFE eating his Body and those that reject it!
When you take Communion (Eucharist) Jesus becomes part of you stronger and stronger each time you consume him. if you fall from Grace through Mortal sin that is where Reconciliation comes in CONFESSION. In the Bible Christ said Whose sins you shall forgive they are Forgiven and whose sins you shall retain they are retained.
To answer your Question Christ becomes Grafted into you more and more that is why he recommends Daily Communion like the Lords Prayer!
So were Jesus, Mary, Joseph, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Peter, and Paul, as well as a bunch of other people.
The Old Testament was the same for 20 Years 70-90 AD The Catholics and Jews.
The Jews then withdrew the Books around 90 AD
The Catholic Church has the same Old Testament for 20 Centuries based on the Greek since the Apostles quoted from the Greek version when Traveling to Egypt Lebanon Syria and Turkey and Evangelizing to Jews and Gentiles there!
Yes, but it is false to suggest God needs the RCC in order to communicate His Word to believers. It is even more absurd, when considering His Word was already available prior to the Incarnation.
Additionally, the major distinctions of the RCC from other denominations were established in the 7th century, which prompted the Reformation.
Just because the Church some 300 years earlier had expressed their confirmation of the Canon or Scripture, doesn’t mean those who lead the worldly institution after Gregory I were also remaining in fellowship. The Reformation suggests otherwise.
Yes, I know you Latins tell the story differently (particularly fancying that the assent given to the Council of Carthage by the local patriarch, the Bishop of Rome, sufficed to give its decision ecumenical force, rather than this happening only with the disciplinary session of the Sixth Ecumenical Council setting forth a canon that the canons of Carthage should be received throughout the Church). And yes, until Rome was removed from the Diptychs of the Great Church of Constantinople for finally accepting the erroneous doctrine of the dual procession of the Holy Spirit in the early 11th century, "Orthodox" and "Catholic" could be used interchangeably.
The point is that using "Catholic" the way you Latins do now, the excerpt I editted is not claiming that the Bible is the work of the ekklesia katholike in the sense St. Ignatius of Antioch used the phrase, but are making a claim freighted with all sorts of dubious content (the papal claims, the filioque, . . .)
The Gospel of Luke and the Acts of the Apostles were written by a Greek physician (cf. Colossians 4, where Luke is mentioned, but not in the list of fellow Jews helping St. Paul).
Interesting. You should perhaps read Luke 9:52-56. By the tone of your post, you seem to have a lot in common with the James and John of whom Luke speaks.
Still trying to pass this silliness off? Didn’t work the first dozen times, why imagine it will this time?
The “expert” weighs in. I’m shocked, shocked.
Repeat a lie often enough?
Concise and to the point. And see below by God's grace.
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