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Busting Congress' Interstate Commerce Myth
The Federalist Blog ^ | August 21, 2006 | P.A Madison

Posted on 08/22/2006 11:24:35 AM PDT by AZRepublican

To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes.

The federal government for years has claimed expansive powers under the authority to regulate commerce – so much that the most innocent private activity can now come under federal control simply because it might have an influence on “interstate commerce.” But did the States really empower Congress through the US Constitution with such an expansive, seemingly unlimited power under the Commerce Clause?

There are two fundamental principles to understand when considering Congress’ power under the Commerce Clause. The first consideration is the fact the power to regulate commerce among the States, with foreign countries, and the Indian Tribes, is identical. The second important consideration to understand is that while the power to regulate commerce is identical across the board, each of the three enumerated entities of the clause has its own unique regulation objective born out of conflicts under the old Articles of Confederation.

The first question most surely crosses anyone’s mind when they come across the language of the clause is what the heck did the framers mean when they said, “to regulate”? Did they imply something like an exclusive power to legislate over all matters of commerce? No.

During the constitutional convention the words "sole and exclusive" before the word "power" was proposed as the language to empower Congress over all matters of commerce -- leaving little doubt over the sweeping power Congress would had been empowered with if indeed such language had been adopted. So obviously then, the majority of the State delegates had something entirely different in mind. And like just about everything given to the federal government, there were limitations imposed, and the regulation of commerce was to be no exception.

The term "regulate" was considered to have restrictive meaning; its meaning was understood to proscribe rules for the free unrestrictive flow of commerce, not an exclusive power to say, directly tax commerce or, take control of every aspect of commerce at its source as would have been the case with the rejected language. Further restriction was placed on the regulation of commerce not only by applying the term “regulate,” but also by combining the regulation of commerce between the States, Indian Tribes and foreign countries together in the same breath.

In an 1827 letter to Joseph Carrington Cabell, Madison explained the phrase this way:

The meaning of the power to regulate commerce is to be sought in the general use of the phrase; in other words, in objects generally understood to be embraced by the power when it was inserted in the Constitution.

Let’s first consider what steps lead to the clause being inserted. Early in 1786 commissioners were appointed by the State of Virginia to meet such commissioners as might be appointed by the other states, for the purpose of:

Considering how far a uniform system in the commercial regulations may be necessary to their common interests, and their permanent harmony; and to report to the several States such an act relative to that object as, when unanimously ratified by them, would enable Congress effectually to provide for the same.

James Madison tells us that the power to regulate commerce was fully understood among the States in a 1832 letter to Professor Davis of the University of Virginia:

The power to regulate commerce among the States was well known and so explained by the advocates of the Constitution when before the people for their consideration, to be as a necessary control on the conduct of some of the importing States toward their non-importing neighbors. A recurrence to the angry legislation produced by it among the parties, some of whom had passed commercial laws more rigid against others than against foreign nations, will well account for the constitutional remedy.

So the States had a ‘common interest’ in entrusting Congress with the authority to remedy the evil of one State placing restrictions on another States commercial intercourse. This in return would have the sought effect of a ‘permanent harmony’ among the States in commerce.

Many have wondered how can the regulation of commerce end at State lines when surely this would make such authority of regulating commerce limited. The answer should be obvious by now; no sole, exclusive power was granted over the subject of commerce within the States, i.e., it was limited by design. Recall that while the objectives for each object of the Commerce Clause is different, the power is identical, and therefore, the regulation of commerce must end at the State line just as it must at the legal limits of a foreign country.

President Monroe, told the House of Representatives on May 4, 1822, that the power of the “national government begins where the State governments terminate.”

Well now, generally when you cross a State line you immediately enter into another State jurisdiction, giving Congress no opportunity to exert restrictive control over the navigation of trade under the current theory of Interstate Commerce. And if a State is not laying duties or interring with a neighbors trade as it passes through, Congress’ authority to meddle within the State is nonexistent.

Jefferson said: “To make a thing which may be bought and sold, is not to prescribe regulations for buying and selling. Besides, if this were an exercise of the power of regulating commerce, it would be void, as extending as much to the internal commerce of every state, as to its external.

Congress’ only mandate under the Commerce Clause is to protect against any attempt by a State to impose restriction or duties on another States commerce. Congress was given no authority to apply its own restrictions or will upon the internal commercial activities of the States no more then they were with a foreign country. If Congress could get away with restricting commerce within State jurisdictions under the clause, would merely be introducing the very evil the clause was intended to remedy.

Congress may still attempt to ‘restrict’ trade through the use of duties placed upon imports from foreign sources via Section 9, but not through the Commerce Clause since the clause only object was to insure the freedom of commercial intercourse, not restriction or usurpation of State jurisdiction.

Charles Pinckney, a man who would know what he is talking about on the subject since he was involved in the framing of the Constitution, sums up the entire issue with this statement in the House of Representatives on February 14, 1820:

...I will only mention here, as it is perfectly within my recollection, that the power was given to Congress to regulate the commerce by water between the States, and it being feared, by the Southern, that the Eastern would, whenever they could, do so to the disadvantage of the Southern States, you will find, in the 6th section of the 1st article, Congress are prevented from taxing exports, or giving preference to the ports of one State over another, or obliging vessels bound from one State to clear, enter, or pay duties in another; which restrictions, more clearly than any thing else, prove what the power to regulate commerce among the several States means.

Now if we can only convince the courts and Congress what this clear proof means so that silly expansive interpretations may finally come to an end, and the rule of written law prevail.


TOPICS:
KEYWORDS: commerceclause; congress; contitution; federalism; interstatecommerce; madison; scotus
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1 posted on 08/22/2006 11:24:36 AM PDT by AZRepublican
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To: AZRepublican; All


As that you are probly right, good luck in fighting the federal goverment & the leagions of lawyers that they employ to enforce the so-called federal laws that they enforce down our throats everyday. There is no way we [the everyday folks] can fix this other than another civil war. And thanks to the fine folks in congress they now know where our fire arms are, and come get them on the grounds of public safty! Thus keeping themselves in power longer!


2 posted on 08/22/2006 11:31:56 AM PDT by TMSuchman (2nd Generation U.S. MARINE, 3rd Generation American & PROUD OF IT!)
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To: AZRepublican
The Supreme Court seemed to be "getting it" in the Lopez and Morrison decisions but even Scalia appeared to backslide a bit in the Raich case.
3 posted on 08/22/2006 11:32:38 AM PDT by Prokopton
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To: AZRepublican

Everyone knows that the Commerce clause, the Necessary clause, and the General Welfare clause were put in so that Congress could wield power over anything it deems necessary. At least that's what one would gather by reading some Supreme Court decisions, this board, and the opinions of modern (and some past) Americans.


4 posted on 08/22/2006 11:32:54 AM PDT by Sam Cree (Don't mix alcopops and ufo's)
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To: TMSuchman
There is no way we [the everyday folks] can fix this other than another civil war

or another planet

5 posted on 08/22/2006 11:33:35 AM PDT by GeronL (flogerloon.blogspot.com -------------> Rise of the Hate Party)
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To: AZRepublican
While the diversion of homegrown wheat tended to frustrate the federal interest in stabilizing prices by regulating the volume of commercial transactions in the interstate market, the diversion of homegrown marijuana tends to frustrate the federal interest in eliminating commercial transactions in the interstate market in their entirety. In both cases, the regulation is squarely within Congress’ commerce power because production of the commodity meant for home consumption, be it wheat or marijuana, has a substantial effect on supply and demand in the national market for that commodity.

-Ashcroft V Raich

The Federalist No. 51, p. 323 (C. Rossiter ed. 1961) (J. Madison). By limiting the states and Congress to their proper prerogatives, the People would enjoy greater freedom since the structure of federalism would prevent Congressional overreaching into local affairs. The people would have two servants, not two masters. Federalism is concerned with individual liberty, not "state sovereignty" or "power."

6 posted on 08/22/2006 11:33:53 AM PDT by AdamSelene235 (Truth has become so rare and precious she is always attended to by a bodyguard of lies.)
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To: AdamSelene235
That statement misses the mark. A better way of phrasing it would be federalism is concerned with the liberty of individuals to self-govern themselves, which makes "state sovereignty" very important because the States is where the "people" are found.
7 posted on 08/22/2006 11:39:15 AM PDT by AZRepublican ("The degree in which a measure is necessary can never be a test of the legal right to adopt it.")
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To: AdamSelene235
By limiting the states and Congress to their proper prerogatives, the People would enjoy greater freedom since the structure of federalism would prevent Congressional overreaching into local affairs.

And not only by limiting Congress. If the states aren't forced to harmonize regulations, they in effect compete to be the most desirable in which to live or to do business. When there is a massive hand leveling the regulatory climate in all the states, the overall level is enabled to become far more tyrannical than it otherwise might be.

In fact if there were some practical way to do it, I would prevent the states from even knowing each others laws, except as necessary to honor marriages contracts, etc.

As it is, if one state gets some freedom abridging idea, it's not long before other states pick it up at conferences thus rendering the whole competition moot.

8 posted on 08/22/2006 11:58:23 AM PDT by Still Thinking (Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?)
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To: AZRepublican
"federalism is concerned with the liberty of individuals to self-govern themselves"

Unless that self-governance interferes with interstate commerce that Congress is regulating. A private pilot flying from one part of the state to another is regulated by the FAA when his flying interferes with the interstate airline traffic that Congress is constitutionally regulating.

Unless you can argue that the federal government has no business regulating purely intrastate activities.

9 posted on 08/22/2006 12:14:23 PM PDT by robertpaulsen
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To: AZRepublican
That statement misses the mark. A better way of phrasing it

I think the author of the Constitution knows the meaning of his own words.

10 posted on 08/22/2006 12:33:25 PM PDT by AdamSelene235 (Truth has become so rare and precious she is always attended to by a bodyguard of lies.)
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To: robertpaulsen
I think you missed this part: That pretty much proves Congress was never given the consent in regards to intrastate regulation. FAA regulations have more to do with safty then with another state imposing duties on another states imports. If it is a matter of safty than every state can impose universal safty regulations within its limits like any other country. Don't need a lawless congress for that.
11 posted on 08/22/2006 12:34:08 PM PDT by AZRepublican ("The degree in which a measure is necessary can never be a test of the legal right to adopt it.")
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To: AZRepublican

Right, but I think you miss is what Madison means by "individual liberty," and what he always referred to "individual liberty" under republicanism is the right to self-governement, the right to make ones own laws and social compact. To Madison, the greatest constitutional liberty for individuals was not found in the Bill of Rights, but in the Tenth Amendment (first 8 amendments is the bill of rights and not first 10).


12 posted on 08/22/2006 12:40:05 PM PDT by AZRepublican ("The degree in which a measure is necessary can never be a test of the legal right to adopt it.")
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To: AZRepublican
"I think you missed this part: Congress are prevented from taxing exports, or giving preference to the ports of one State over another, or obliging vessels bound from one State to clear, enter, or pay duties in another"

Nope. Read every word.

Perhaps you can tell me which word in there is applicable to my example and prevents Congress from passing laws to the extent necessary to regulate interstate commerce.

"If it is a matter of safty than every state can impose universal safty regulations within its limits like any other country."

It is a matter of safety, but it is also a matter of encouraging and facilitating interstate commerce. As for each state imposing safety regulations, they cannot divest Congress of its authority under the commerce clause.

"To impose on (Congress- rp) the necessity of resorting to means which it cannot control, which another government may furnish or withhold, would render its course precarious, the result of its measures uncertain, and create a dependence on other governments, which might disappoint its most important designs, and is incompatible with the language of the constitution."
-- Chief Justice (and Founding Father) John Marshall, McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

13 posted on 08/22/2006 1:10:55 PM PDT by robertpaulsen
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To: robertpaulsen
Encouraging and facilitating commerce was intended between foreign countries through treaties or even tariffs in order even the playing field...regulation of commerce among the states was only to remedy one state restricting navigation of another states commerce.
14 posted on 08/22/2006 1:29:16 PM PDT by AZRepublican ("The degree in which a measure is necessary can never be a test of the legal right to adopt it.")
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To: AZRepublican
"Encouraging and facilitating commerce was intended between foreign countries"

President (and Founding Father) Thomas Jefferson and his Secretary of State, James Madison (who wrote the commerce clause) used it to prohibit foreign trade in 1808 -- so that can't be right.

They also used it to prohibit the sale of alcohol to the Indian tribes in 1802. So it appears that the definition of "to regulate" also includes "to prohibit".

"regulation of commerce among the states was only to remedy one state restricting navigation of another states commerce."

That certainly was how the commerce clause was used initially, yes. But I see nothing in the wording of the commerce clause that limits Congress to only the remedy you mentioned. As I pointed out, the commerce clause was used early on to prohibit commerce.

15 posted on 08/22/2006 2:17:09 PM PDT by robertpaulsen
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To: GeronL

Known Space


16 posted on 08/22/2006 6:36:54 PM PDT by Sam Cree (Don't mix alcopops and ufo's)
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To: robertpaulsen; AZRepublican; Everybody

paulsen spins:

"-- it appears that the definition of "to regulate" also includes "to prohibit".

--- I see nothing in the wording of the commerce clause that limits Congress to only the remedy you mentioned. As I pointed out, the commerce clause was used early on to prohibit commerce. --"


~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~



Paulsen is a prohibitionist, -- guns, drugs, 'sin', -- you name it, he wants any level of gov't to have the power to prohibit most anything.



The 10th says they have no such delegated powers:

The power to regulate v. the power to prohibit
Address:http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-news/1419654/posts?page=1


Barnett supports the clear constitutional position that; "--- the power of Congress to "well-regulate" commerce among the states does not include the power to forbid or prohibit commerce. --"


17 posted on 08/22/2006 6:37:11 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: tpaine
Where did you get "well-regulate" -- your copy of Article I, Section 10 contain that phrase?

Oh, and check out post #3 of your link. It appears that Founding Father James Madison disagrees with your Mr. Barnett. As does Founding Father and Chief Justice John Marshall's court which said in Gibbons v. Ogden, 22 U.S. 1 (1824):

"The 'power to regulate commerce,' here meant to be granted, was that power to regulate commerce which previously existed in the States. But what was that power? The States were, unquestionably, supreme; and each possessed that power over commerce, which is acknowledged to reside in every sovereign State. The definition and limits of that power are to be sought among the features of international law; and, as it was not only admitted, but insisted on by both parties, in argument, that, 'unaffected by a state of war, by treaties, or by municipal regulations, all commerce among independent States was legitimate,' there is no necessity to appeal to the oracles of the jus commune for the correctness of that doctrine. The law of nations, regarding man as a social animal, pronounces all commerce legitimate in a state of peace, until prohibited by positive law. The power of a sovereign state over commerce, therefore, amounts to nothing more than a power to limit and restrain it at pleasure. And since the power to prescribe the limits to its freedom, necessarily implies the power to determine what shall remain unrestrained, it follows, that the power must be exclusive; it can reside but in one potentate; and hence, the grant of this power carries with it the whole subject, leaving nothing for the State to act upon."

"Of all the endless variety of branches of foreign commerce, now carried on to every quarter of the world, I know of no one that is permitted by act of Congress, any otherwise than by not being forbidden. No statute of the United States, that I know of, was ever passed to permit a commerce, unless in consequence of its having been prohibited by some previous statute."

18 posted on 08/23/2006 5:11:33 AM PDT by robertpaulsen
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To: robertpaulsen
Prohibit what, commerce from across the Atlantic or in the interior? The prohibition against importation of slaves was an exception to commerce involving importation from abroad. If we take your analysis latterly, then there would have been no need for the 13th amendment.
19 posted on 08/23/2006 6:28:10 AM PDT by AZRepublican ("The degree in which a measure is necessary can never be a test of the legal right to adopt it.")
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To: AZRepublican

bump


20 posted on 08/23/2006 6:28:40 AM PDT by foreverfree
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