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What Was the Sin of Sodom and Gomorrah?
Stand to Reason ^ | 03/08/2013 | Greg Koukl

Posted on 10/04/2017 9:00:29 AM PDT by fwdude

Why did God destroy Sodom and Gomorrah? Was the most extensive judgment found anywhere in the Bible outside of the book of Revelation actually for the sin of inhospitality, not homosexuality?

People find what they want in the Bible. If one looks hard enough, he can find "biblical" support for reincarnation, Eastern religions, Jesus as a guru, divorce for any reason, and flying saucers. Every cult of Christianity uses the Bible to validate its claims and so does some of the occult.

It's not surprising, then, that a recent trend in biblical scholarship holds that a careful reading of Genesis in its historical context offers no solid basis to conclude that the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah had anything to do with homosexuality.

(Excerpt) Read more at str.org ...


TOPICS: General Discusssion; History; Moral Issues; Religion & Culture
KEYWORDS: 2013; boswell; homosexualagenda; inhospitability; koulk; nasb; sodomandgomorrah; thesinofsodom
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To: robroys woman

[ inhospitality is what homosexuals want it to be. ]

That is correct.


21 posted on 10/04/2017 9:16:53 AM PDT by SaveFerris (Luke 17:28 ... as it was in the days of Lot; they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold ......)
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To: fwdude; All
People find what they want in the Bible. If one looks hard enough, he can find “biblical” support for reincarnation, Eastern religions, Jesus as a guru, divorce for any reason, and flying saucers …
The “Jesus as a guru” notion is found nowhere in the Bible, nor the supposed validation of Eastern religions and the notion of reincarnation. That comes from the heretical “Aquarian ‘Gospel’” written by Levi Dowling.
22 posted on 10/04/2017 9:19:51 AM PDT by Olog-hai ("No Republican, no matter how liberal, is going to woo a Democratic vote." -- Ronald Reagan, 1960)
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To: fwdude
So where in the NT is inhospitality listed as an egregious sin against God?

Galatians 5:19-21 ... nope, not there ...
Colossians 3:5-10 ... nope, nothing ...
Revelation 21:8 ... zippo ...

23 posted on 10/04/2017 9:19:53 AM PDT by dartuser
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To: fwdude
It's not surprising, then, that a recent trend in biblical scholarship holds that a careful reading of Genesis in its historical context offers no solid basis to conclude that the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah had anything to do with homosexuality.

The "recent trend" must include ignoring passages that don't support your agenda.

24 posted on 10/04/2017 9:24:33 AM PDT by Disambiguator (Keepin' it analog.)
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To: fwdude

Preferring bum to quim!


25 posted on 10/04/2017 9:25:40 AM PDT by Dr. Ursus
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To: fwdude

There were sins of Sodom. Homosexuality was one. However, I don’t believe homosexuality was the prime sin that Sodom was destroyed over. It was sex with angels *or attempted. Sodom ties to Genesis 6, Genesis 14, Jude and 1 Peter. Gays have existed in every city in every generation. Per Romans 1 that lifestyle choice is a consequence of a society that does not worship God as creator. It isn’t the prime sin God destroys civilizations iver. The sin of Sodom goes beyond gay rape. It goes to the Nephilim and that rebellion and an attempt to recreate that world. Read Jude. The going after strange flesh has a deeper meaning than homosexuality.


26 posted on 10/04/2017 9:25:58 AM PDT by Blogger
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To: SaveFerris

Another misreading I find fascinating is how people interpret matthew 5:32, both parts:

The first part: But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery...

Many say that proves it is ok to divorce your wife if she commits adultery. But what it actually is saying is that if you divorce your wife you make her the victim of adultery, UNLESS it is because SHE committed adultery first. What it is really saying is that you cannot make someone an adulteress if they already made themself one. It is NOT saying that it’s ok or not ok to divorce them. It’s saying that if you divorce them for any reason other than their own adultery, you make them a victim of adultery, otherwise, They made themself a victim of adultery.

And the latter part: “...and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”

I’m challenged by that one because both my wife and I were divorced when we married. And at 43 that is about all you have to choose from that is not single for worse reasons. I have a hard time reconciling that, though we’ve lived infinitely happier these last 20 years than I did with my first wife the first 20. And I didn’t divorce her. She divorced me. Same thing happened to my wife. We were both evicted from our marriages and then found each other.

The Lord does work in mysterious ways. I’ve gotta ask him what he was really driving at with that verse. Both halves.


27 posted on 10/04/2017 9:26:54 AM PDT by robroys woman (So you're not confused, I'm male.)
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To: SaveFerris; robroys woman
The degenerates get the "inhospitality" interpretation from a passage in Ezekiel 16:

[verse 49] "Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy."

But they never continue with the full reference:

[verse 50] "And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good."

28 posted on 10/04/2017 9:28:12 AM PDT by fwdude
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To: Rurudyne
"As I’ve pointed out in the past: wanting to sexually assault people visiting your town is pretty darn inhospitable."

So is offering your virgin daughters for rape.

29 posted on 10/04/2017 9:31:21 AM PDT by mlo
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To: fwdude
Typical Bible revisionist: "But, wait! MY interpretation is better! Disregard all the information that's been studied, discussed, and passed down for thousands of years. They were all wrong! I once read the Bible, and I didn't see anything bad about queers in it!"

I think Satan has been working overtime in recent years.....

30 posted on 10/04/2017 9:31:41 AM PDT by jeffc (The U.S. media are our enemy)
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To: fwdude

Is the question trying to justify Sodomy?


31 posted on 10/04/2017 9:34:31 AM PDT by DungeonMaster (Goblins, Orcs and the Undead: Metaphors for the godless left.)
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To: DungeonMaster
Is the question trying to justify Sodomy?

Nope.

It's all explained in the article.

32 posted on 10/04/2017 9:35:32 AM PDT by fwdude
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To: cincinnati65

Damn... I mean dudes beating on your door to rape YOU is bad, but offering your teen virgin daughters to them??? that’s just as creepy...

Oh no, you cant have me, but here, take my virgin daughter...


33 posted on 10/04/2017 9:38:11 AM PDT by wyowolf (Be ware when the preachers take over the Republican party...)
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To: fwdude

Serving American Beer. The sin of inhospitality. One can tell, because it fits perfectly with Lot’s reaction. (sarc.)


34 posted on 10/04/2017 9:39:33 AM PDT by Hieronymus (It is terrible to contemplate how few politicians are hanged. --G. K. Chesterton)
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To: wyowolf

I’ve heard conjecture made that Lot was trying to placate the citizens of Sodom merely, and wouldn’t have given them his daughters if accepted (he knew they wouldn’t accept.) I’ve also heard that he was testing them, thereby making their judgement all the more severe.

Weak, but that’s out there.


35 posted on 10/04/2017 9:40:15 AM PDT by fwdude
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To: fwdude

I don’t have a teen daughter, just a son. But there is NO power on this earth that would EVER make me say something like that... testing or not.


36 posted on 10/04/2017 9:41:25 AM PDT by wyowolf (Be ware when the preachers take over the Republican party...)
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To: fwdude
Citing John Boswell, who openly had the agenda of trying to insert homosexuality as non-sinful into Christian doctrine, and who died from AIDS in 1994, as a valid historian, exposes the agenda further, even going so far as to quote this egregious lie by Boswell:
The Hebrew word “toebah,” here translated “abomination,” does not usually signify something intrinsically evil, like rape or theft…, but something which is ritually unclean for Jews, like eating pork or engaging in intercourse during menstruation, both of which are prohibited in these same chapters (of Leviticus). …
So why would God have prescribed death for those who commit this particular toebah or “abomination”, as Leviticus 20:13 makes plain, and Ezekiel 16:50 also makes plain?
37 posted on 10/04/2017 9:42:50 AM PDT by Olog-hai ("No Republican, no matter how liberal, is going to woo a Democratic vote." -- Ronald Reagan, 1960)
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To: wyowolf

Well, consider that King Solomon actually ordered that an infant be sliced in half to test two women contesting motherhood.

Or that God ordered Abraham to slit his son’s throat as a sacrifice to Him.

Or that Jesus referred to a beseeching woman as a “dog” and his close disciple as “Satan.”

We’ve apparently gotten thin skins over the centuries.


38 posted on 10/04/2017 9:44:07 AM PDT by fwdude
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To: wyowolf

Unless the issue is not homosexuality or rape. If what I think was going on was going on, it is part of the reason God destroyed the world prior to this. Humans having sex with angels creating a hybrid race. Now, these were males and males, so maybe there was some occultic reasoning. But, it was the same rebellion as Genesis 6.


39 posted on 10/04/2017 9:44:40 AM PDT by Blogger
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To: fwdude

I know Greg Koukl, and he is a very thorough thinker.
More than that, he is a fantastic public speaker—amiable, interesting, and thought-provoking.
Do yourself a favor and take a look at these:
His “Columbo” talk,
https://vimeo.com/13775550

and his take on “intolerance”,
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KG_R9e60Wp4&t=726s


40 posted on 10/04/2017 9:46:47 AM PDT by shoe212 (One of the few Conservative professors in the Midwest.)
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